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NR566 / NR 566 Final Exam (Latest
2024/2025): Advanced Pharmacology
for Care of the Family – Chamberlain |
Verified Questions & Answers | A+
Graded
Question 1
What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated chlamydia in a non-pregnant adult patient that
requires only a single oral dose?
A. Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 7 days
B. Azithromycin 1000 mg once
C. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once
D. Metronidazole 500 mg BID for 7 days
Correct Answer: B. Azithromycin 1000 mg once
Rationale: Azithromycin 1000 mg as a single oral dose is the first-line treatment for
uncomplicated chlamydia due to its efficacy and ease of administration, improving patient
compliance. Doxycycline is an alternative but requires a 7-day course. Ceftriaxone is used for
gonorrhea, and metronidazole is indicated for bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis.
Question 2
Which medication is contraindicated in patients with HIV due to its immune-stimulating effects?
A. Coenzyme Q-10
B. Echinacea
C. Ginkgo Biloba
D. St. John’s Wort
Correct Answer: B. Echinacea
Rationale: Echinacea is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients, such as those with
HIV, as it stimulates the immune system, potentially opposing the effects of immunosuppressant
drugs or worsening autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Coenzyme Q-10 is used for
energy production, Ginkgo Biloba for cognitive support, and St. John’s Wort for depression but
interacts with many drugs.
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Question 3
What is the primary treatment for primary, secondary, or early latent syphilis?
A. Azithromycin 1000 mg orally once
B. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once
C. Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 14 days
D. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once
Correct Answer: B. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once
Rationale: Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once is the gold standard for treating
primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis due to its effectiveness against Treponema
pallidum. Azithromycin and doxycycline are alternatives for penicillin-allergic patients, and
ceftriaxone is not indicated for syphilis.
Question 4
A patient on donepezil 5 mg daily for dementia reports no improvement after 3 weeks. What is
the best response?
A. Discontinue the medication immediately
B. Increase the dose after 1–3 months to minimize side effects
C. Switch to memantine immediately
D. Add an herbal supplement like Ginkgo Biloba
Correct Answer: B. Increase the dose after 1–3 months to minimize side effects
Rationale: Donepezil, a cholinesterase inhibitor, requires 1–3 months at the initial dose to assess
efficacy and minimize side effects like nausea or insomnia. Increasing the dose prematurely or
switching to memantine is not appropriate without adequate trial duration. Herbal supplements
are not recommended over dose adjustment.
Question 5
Which adverse effect is associated with Ginkgo Biloba?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Seizures from seed ingestion
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B. Seizures from seed ingestion
Rationale: Ginkgo Biloba can cause stomach upset, headache, dizziness, vertigo, and, rarely,
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seizures or fatalities if the seeds are ingested. Hepatotoxicity is associated with kava-kava,
peripheral neuropathy with isoniazid, and bradycardia with cholinesterase inhibitors.
Question 6
What is the goal of abortive therapy for migraines?
A. Prevent migraines long-term
B. Eliminate headache pain and suppress nausea/vomiting
C. Reduce seizure frequency
D. Improve cognitive function
Correct Answer: B. Eliminate headache pain and suppress nausea/vomiting
Rationale: Abortive therapy for migraines aims to stop headache pain and associated symptoms
like nausea and vomiting at the onset of an attack. It is used 1–2 days per week to avoid
medication overuse headache. Prophylactic therapy prevents migraines, while seizure and
cognitive treatments are unrelated.
Question 7
Which drug class is the first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. SSRIs/SNRIs
C. Beta blockers
D. Tricyclic antidepressants
Correct Answer: B. SSRIs/SNRIs
Rationale: SSRIs (e.g., sertraline, fluoxetine) and SNRIs are first-line treatments for generalized
anxiety disorder due to their efficacy and safety profile. Benzodiazepines are used for acute
anxiety, beta blockers for performance anxiety, and tricyclic antidepressants are second-line due
to side effects.
Question 8
What is a common side effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?
A. Weight gain
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Hypertension
D. Hypoglycemia
NR566 / NR 566 Final Exam (Latest
2024/2025): Advanced Pharmacology
for Care of the Family – Chamberlain |
Verified Questions & Answers | A+
Graded
Question 1
What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated chlamydia in a non-pregnant adult patient that
requires only a single oral dose?
A. Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 7 days
B. Azithromycin 1000 mg once
C. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once
D. Metronidazole 500 mg BID for 7 days
Correct Answer: B. Azithromycin 1000 mg once
Rationale: Azithromycin 1000 mg as a single oral dose is the first-line treatment for
uncomplicated chlamydia due to its efficacy and ease of administration, improving patient
compliance. Doxycycline is an alternative but requires a 7-day course. Ceftriaxone is used for
gonorrhea, and metronidazole is indicated for bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis.
Question 2
Which medication is contraindicated in patients with HIV due to its immune-stimulating effects?
A. Coenzyme Q-10
B. Echinacea
C. Ginkgo Biloba
D. St. John’s Wort
Correct Answer: B. Echinacea
Rationale: Echinacea is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients, such as those with
HIV, as it stimulates the immune system, potentially opposing the effects of immunosuppressant
drugs or worsening autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Coenzyme Q-10 is used for
energy production, Ginkgo Biloba for cognitive support, and St. John’s Wort for depression but
interacts with many drugs.
, 2
Question 3
What is the primary treatment for primary, secondary, or early latent syphilis?
A. Azithromycin 1000 mg orally once
B. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once
C. Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 14 days
D. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once
Correct Answer: B. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once
Rationale: Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once is the gold standard for treating
primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis due to its effectiveness against Treponema
pallidum. Azithromycin and doxycycline are alternatives for penicillin-allergic patients, and
ceftriaxone is not indicated for syphilis.
Question 4
A patient on donepezil 5 mg daily for dementia reports no improvement after 3 weeks. What is
the best response?
A. Discontinue the medication immediately
B. Increase the dose after 1–3 months to minimize side effects
C. Switch to memantine immediately
D. Add an herbal supplement like Ginkgo Biloba
Correct Answer: B. Increase the dose after 1–3 months to minimize side effects
Rationale: Donepezil, a cholinesterase inhibitor, requires 1–3 months at the initial dose to assess
efficacy and minimize side effects like nausea or insomnia. Increasing the dose prematurely or
switching to memantine is not appropriate without adequate trial duration. Herbal supplements
are not recommended over dose adjustment.
Question 5
Which adverse effect is associated with Ginkgo Biloba?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Seizures from seed ingestion
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B. Seizures from seed ingestion
Rationale: Ginkgo Biloba can cause stomach upset, headache, dizziness, vertigo, and, rarely,
, 3
seizures or fatalities if the seeds are ingested. Hepatotoxicity is associated with kava-kava,
peripheral neuropathy with isoniazid, and bradycardia with cholinesterase inhibitors.
Question 6
What is the goal of abortive therapy for migraines?
A. Prevent migraines long-term
B. Eliminate headache pain and suppress nausea/vomiting
C. Reduce seizure frequency
D. Improve cognitive function
Correct Answer: B. Eliminate headache pain and suppress nausea/vomiting
Rationale: Abortive therapy for migraines aims to stop headache pain and associated symptoms
like nausea and vomiting at the onset of an attack. It is used 1–2 days per week to avoid
medication overuse headache. Prophylactic therapy prevents migraines, while seizure and
cognitive treatments are unrelated.
Question 7
Which drug class is the first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. SSRIs/SNRIs
C. Beta blockers
D. Tricyclic antidepressants
Correct Answer: B. SSRIs/SNRIs
Rationale: SSRIs (e.g., sertraline, fluoxetine) and SNRIs are first-line treatments for generalized
anxiety disorder due to their efficacy and safety profile. Benzodiazepines are used for acute
anxiety, beta blockers for performance anxiety, and tricyclic antidepressants are second-line due
to side effects.
Question 8
What is a common side effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?
A. Weight gain
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Hypertension
D. Hypoglycemia
