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Evolve Pharm Test Questions With Verified Answers Graded A+

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A client with giardiasis is taking metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 grams PO. Which information should the nurse include in the client's instruction? A) Notify the clinic of any changes in the color of urine. B) Avoid overexposure to the sun. C) Stop the medication after the diarrhea resolves. D) Take the medication with food. - - Correct Answer(s): D Flagyl, an amoebicide and antibacterial agent, may cause gastric distress, so the client should be instructed to take the medication on a full stomach (D). Urine m

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Evolve Pharm Test Questions With Verified Answers Graded A+

A client with giardiasis is taking metronidazole A) Perfusion scan.
(Flagyl) 2 grams PO. Which information should B) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
the nurse include in the client's instruction? C) Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
A) Notify the clinic of any changes in the color of D) Serum Coumadin level (SCL). - -
urine. Correct Answer(s): B
B) Avoid overexposure to the sun. When used for a client with pulmonary embolus,
C) Stop the medication after the diarrhea the therapeutic goal for warfarin therapy is a PT
resolves. 1½ to 2½ times greater than the control, or an
D) Take the medication with food. - - INR of 2 to 3 (B). A perfusion might be performed
Correct Answer(s): D to monitor lung function, but not monthly (A).
Flagyl, an amoebicide and antibacterial agent, APTT is monitored for the client receiving heparin
may cause gastric distress, so the client should therapy (C). A blood level for Coumadin cannot
be instructed to take the medication on a full be measured (D).
stomach (D). Urine may be red-brown or dark
from Flagyl, but this side effect is not necessary
to report (A). Photosensitivity (B) is not a side
effect associated with Flagyl. Despite the A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult
resolution of clinical symptoms, antiinfective female client. Which instruction is most important
medications should be taken for their entire for the nurse to teach this client?
course because stopping the medication (C) can A) Use a reliable form of birth control.
increase the risk of resistant organisms. B) Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C) Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D) Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. -
-Correct Answer(s): A
While taking a nursing history, the client states, "I Drugs classified in the category X place a client
am allergic to penicillin." What related allergy to who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk
another type of antiinfective agent should the for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing
nurse ask the client about when taking the years should be counseled to use a reliable form
nursing history? of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not
A) Aminoglycosides. a specific precaution with Category X drugs. The
B) Cephalosporins. client should be encouraged to discuss plans for
C) Sulfonamides. pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a
D) Tetracyclines. - -Correct Answer(s): B safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided
Cross allergies exist between penicillins and if pregnancy occurs. Although the risk of birth
cephalosporins (B). Penicillin allergies are defects during pregnancy explains the restriction
unrelated to allergies associated with (A, C, or of these drugs during pregnancy, (D) is not
D). indicated.



Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary The nitrate isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) is
embolism, a client is being discharged with a prescribed for a client with angina. Which
prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). In instruction should the nurse include in this client's
conducting discharge teaching, the nurse discharge teaching plan?
advises the client to have which diagnostic test A) Quit taking the medication if dizziness occurs.
monitored regularly after discharge? B) Do not get up quickly. Always rise slowly.


,Evolve Pharm Test Questions With Verified Answers Graded A+

C) Take the medication with food only. B) Dizziness.
D) Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods. C) Muscle cramps.
- -Correct Answer(s): B D) Dry mucous membranes. - -Correct
An expected side effect of nitrates is orthostatic Answer(s): B
hypotension and the nurse should address how Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
to prevent it--by rising slowly (B). Dizziness is are used in CHF to reduce afterload by reversing
expected, and the client should not quit taking vasoconstriction common in heart failure. This
the medication without notifying the healthcare vasodilation can cause hypotension and resultant
provider (A). (C and D) are not indicated when dizziness (B). (A) is desired if fluid overload is
taking this medication. present, and may occur as the result of effective
combination drug therapy such as diuretics with
ACE inhibitors. (C) often indicates hypokalemia in
the client receiving diuretics. Excessive diuretic
A client is being treated for osteoporosis with administration may result in fluid volume deficit,
alendronate (Fosamax), and the nurse has manifested by symptoms such as (D).
completed discharge teaching regarding
medication administration. Which morning
schedule would indicate to the nurse that the
client teaching has been effective? A client with Parkinson's disease is taking
A) Take medication, go for a 30 minute morning carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which
walk, then eat breakfast. observation by the nurse should indicate that the
B) Take medication, rest in bed for 30 minutes, desired outcome of the medication is being
eat breakfast, go for morning walk. achieved?
C) Take medication with breakfast, then take a A) Decreased blood pressure.
30 minute morning walk. B) Lessening of tremors.
D) Go for a 30 minute morning walk, eat C) Increased salivation.
breakfast, then take medication. - -Correct D) Increased attention span. - -Correct
Answer(s): A Answer(s): B
Alendronate (Fosamax) is best absorbed when Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the
taken thirty minutes before eating in the morning. CNS (dopamine to the brain). Increased amounts
The client should also be advised to remain in an of dopamine improve the symptoms of
upright position for at least thirty minutes after Parkinson's, such as involuntary movements,
taking the medication to reduce the risk of resting tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a
esophageal reflux and irritation. (A) is the best side effect of Sinemet. Decreased drooling would
schedule to meet these needs. (B, C, and D) do be a desired effect, not (C). Sinemet does not
not meet these criteria. affect (D).



A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is In teaching a client who had a liver transplant
being discharged with a new prescription for the about cyclosporine (Sandimmune), the nurse
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor should encourage the client to report which
captopril (Capoten). The nurse's discharge adverse response to the healthcare provider?
instruction should include reporting which A) Changes in urine color.
problem to the healthcare provider? B) Presence of hand tremors.
A) Weight loss. C) Increasing body hirsutism.


, Evolve Pharm Test Questions With Verified Answers Graded A+

D) Nausea and vomiting. - -Neurological the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically
complications, such as hand tremors (B), occur just before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and
in about 50% of clients taking cyclosporine and D) do not describe the optimum time for obtaining
should be reported. Although this drug can be a trough level of an antibiotic.
nephrotoxic, (A) typically does not occur. (C and
D) are common side effects, but are not usually Correct Answer(s): B
severe.

Correct Answer(s): B
The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis
(Digoxin) for a client diagnosed with congestive
heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse
Which nursing intervention is most important implement prior to administering the digoxin?
when caring for a client receiving the A) Observe respiratory rate and depth.
antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for B) Assess the serum potassium level.
chemotherapy? C) Obtain the client's blood pressure.
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and D) Monitor the serum glucose level - -
after infusion. Hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will
B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving
of extremities. digoxin (B). (A and C) will not affect the
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for administration of digoxin. (D) should be
ulcerations. monitored if he/she is a diabetic and is perhaps
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased receiving insulin.
acidity. - -Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C)
affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, Correct Answer(s): B
therefore stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations are
key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B, and
D) are not typical interventions associated with
the administration of antimetabolites. A client asks the nurse if glipizide (Glucotrol) is
an oral insulin. Which response should the nurse
Correct Answer(s): C provide?
A) "Yes, it is an oral insulin and has the same
actions and properties as intermediate insulin."
B) "Yes, it is an oral insulin and is distributed,
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a metabolized, and excreted in the same manner
client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the as insulin."
optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough C) "No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used
level? only when some beta cell function is present."
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is D) "No, it is not an oral insulin, but it is effective
administered. for those who are resistant to injectable insulins."
B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is - -An effective oral form of insulin has not
given. yet been developed (C) because when insulin is
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be taken orally, it is destroyed by digestive enzymes.
checked. Glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral hypoglycemic
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose agent that enhances pancreatic production of
is given. - -Trough levels are drawn when insulin. (A, B, and D) do not provide accurate

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