ABRET-EEG FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS <RECENT VERSION>

ABRET-EEG FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS &lt;RECENT VERSION&gt; 1. An EEG obtained during sleep is most valuable in what condition? - ANSWER Focal seizures or status during sleep 2. A 7 year old presents with spells of spacing out. What activation procedure is the most important? - ANSWER Hyperventilation 3. During HV, a 9 y/o pt. develops generalized 100-300 microvolts slowing. If within 30 seconds post HV, the record returns to preHV state the reaction would be? - ANSWER a normal response to HV 4. Hyperventilation - ANSWER Hypocapnia 5. A subharmonic photic driving response is? - ANSWER half the frequency of the strobe 6. What is a contraindication of for HV? - ANSWER Sickle cell anemia 7. What procedure is a non-standard activation? - ANSWER Listening to music 8. PS is most effective in evoking epileptiform abnormalities in patient's with? - ANSWER a family history of seizures 9. What other EEG pattern would you expect to see in a pt. with prominent photic driving response? - ANSWER LAMBDA 10. Photic induced epileptiform discharges are most likely associated with - ANSWER barbiturate withdrawl 11. What could be the cause for a build up of slowing several minutes after HV has been completed? - ANSWER Moya Moya 12. Abnormal presentation to photic stimulation. - ANSWER photoparoxysmal 13. What activation procedure should be avoided in a patient with intracranial hemorrhage? - ANSWER Hyperventilation 14. Photoparoxysmal response - ANSWER EEG response to light with spikes, spike and wave discharges and/or intermittent slow waves 15. An EEG shows eye blink and muscle artifact. What is likely the state of the patient? - ANSWER Awake 16. What is the first thing that should be done when trying to eliminate 60hz. artifact? - ANSWER attempting to eliminate the technical issue 17. Sweat artifact is severely obscuring the EEG. What is the first step the technologist should take to eliminate the artifact? - ANSWER cool the patient down by removing the patient's blanket and fanning them. 18. Glossokinetic Artifact - ANSWER Biological 19. Sweat artifact - ANSWER slow deflection 20. Glossokinetic - ANSWER tongue movement 21. What is the name of the artifact that appears as a prominent R wave with positivity over the left posterior quadrant of the head and can resemble a spike? - ANSWER ECG artifact 22. Eye movement artifact - ANSWER Vertical eye movements are seen over FP1 and FP2 while horizontal eye movements are seen over F7 and F8. 23. Using the International 10/20 system, if the distance from nasion to inion is 34 cm, What is the distance from Fz to Oz? - ANSWER 20.4cm 24. Tuberous sclerosis - ANSWER genetic 25. What is the typical presentation of CJD? - ANSWER progressive dementia, bilateral ridigity, myoclonus, stupor and death 26. Characterized by dementia, myoclonus and biphasic or triphasic repetitive discharges? - ANSWER CJD 27. If the distance from the right preauricular to the right outer canthus is measures 9cm, where should electrode T2 be placed? - ANSWER 3cm out from the preauricular and 1cm up 28. FT9 or T1 and F10 or T2 record from the - ANSWER anterior temporal lobe 29. If the nasion to inion measurement is 40cm, what is the distance between Cz and Pz? - ANSWER 8cm 30. When a large amount of paste is used to hold down an electrode, the total recording area will be? - ANSWER total scalp surface area of the paste 31. The onset of Surge Weber's? - ANSWER Infancy 32. When is it permissible to release patient information to a third party? - ANSWER When the patient provides written consent 33. Once EEG data is acquired there is an expectation that the information will be protected. This means? - ANSWER all staff are accountable for protecting the patient confidentiality 34. The central aspect of using the minimum necessary amount of protected health information needed to accomplish the intended purpose of the use, disclosure or request is a part of which act? - ANSWER HIPAA 35. Used to treat infantile spasms? - ANSWER ACTH 36. ACTH - ANSWER Infantile spams 37. Effect of Phenobarbital on EEG activity - ANSWER Increase BETA activity 38. Used in treatment of only generalized seizures, commonly in absence seizures? - ANSWER Euthosuximide 39. Vagal nerve stimulation is used to treat? - ANSWER seizures and depression 40. With rapidly increasing dosage, what medication will have the most sedative effect on the pt? - ANSWER Barbiturates 41. Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges are most likely associated with? - ANSWER herpes simplex encephalitis 42. In the EEG lab the major concern of transmission through infection is? - ANSWER blood 43. Best describes a noncritical infectious instrument? - ANSWER has contact with intact skin 44. Papilledema is most common in what condition? - ANSWER Posterior Fossa tumor 45. When a pt. has active TB it is necessary? - ANSWER for the pt. to wear a mask. 46. According to OSHA, when must END equipment be checked for leakage current, ground resistance and electrical safety? - ANSWER semi annually 47. Reduction of health care associated infections is addressed by? - ANSWER National Patient Safety Goals 48. SDS - ANSWER Safety Data Sheet 49. What is most related to measurement of voltage in relation to current and resistance? - ANSWER Ohm's law 50. What type of electricity provides a steady source of current, flowing in one direction? - ANSWER Direct current 51. Avoid the use of this in EEG, it may increase capacitive current to a dangerous amount. - ANSWER extension cord 52. Life threatening current could pass through a patient if? - ANSWER the machine ground is not intact 53. Violation of ABRET code of ethics? - ANSWER not striving to keep current with technology 54. What is grounds for disciplinary action according to ABRET code of ethics? - ANSWER being ineligible to take credentialing exam after the credential was earned 55. Standard of conduct for credentialed technologist - ANSWER ABRET code of Ethics 56. What extra electrodes would best demonstrated EEG activity associated with focal motor twitching of the right corner of the mouth? - ANSWER C5 57. Sphenodial electrodes are used to record activity from the? - ANSWER anterior temporal lobes 58. An abbreviated 10/20 placement, respiration, ECG, EOG monitors should be used when recording? - ANSWER neonates 59. What additional electrodes could be placed to help decipher between artifact and cortical activity in this sample? - ANSWER EOG electrodes 60. Cortical EEG recording can be obscured in patients who are tense or anxious due to? - ANSWER myogenic artifact 61. brain abscess - ANSWER Focal polymorphic delta activity 62. At therapeutic levels, phenytion causes what kind of EEG findings? - ANSWER No change 63. A 25 y/o with new onset psychosis is given Ativan 3mg. prior to EEG. How would this effect the EEG - ANSWER Increased BETA activity 64. Prominent feature in Dilantin toxicity? - ANSWER ataxia 65. What is the most common cause of increased BETA? - ANSWER medications 66. Triphasic waves or periodic discharges can seen due to the toxic effect of what medication? - ANSWER Lithium 67. What medication would increase BETA activity? - ANSWER Xanax 68. Phenobarbital - ANSWER Beta activity 69. What drug shows the most observable effect on the EEG? - ANSWER Benzodiazepam 70. N1 sleep is not characterized by? - ANSWER sleep spindles 71. Characteristic of active sleep in a neonate - ANSWER frequent movements 72. Sharply contoured, surface positivity, and seen in clusters over the occipital lobe during drowsiness, describes: - ANSWER POSTS 73. Stage N3 sleep - ANSWER 30% delta activity 74. Slow Lateral Eye Movement - ANSWER drowsy 75. Small Sharp Spikes (SSS) - ANSWER Stage 1-11 sleep 76. What waveform is seen in stage 2 sleep and during arousals, contains 3 components, sharp, slow and fast. - ANSWER K-complex 77. Narocoplepsy - ANSWER sleep-onset REM 78. The EEG finding during REM sleep: - ANSWER Saw tooth waves 79. Sleep spindles may be more irregular or of lower voltage in: - ANSWER elderly patients 80. Hypnagogic Hypersynchrony - ANSWER can be present during arousal state transitions both prior to sleep, onset and following arousal. 81. AT THERAPEUTIC LEVELS, PHENYTOIN CAUSES WHAT KIND OF EEG FINDINGS - ANSWER NO CHANGE 82. TRIPHASIC WAVES AND OR PERIODIC DISCHARGES CAN BE PRESENT ON AN EEG DUE TO THE TOXIC EFFECTS OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEDICATION - ANSWER LITHIUM 83. ORDA IS COMMONLY SEEN IN CHILDREN WITH - ANSWER ABSENCE SEIZURES 84. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEDICATIONS WOULD BE EXPECTED TO INCREASE BETA FREQUENCY ACTIVITY - ANSWER XANAX 85. A 25 YEAR OLD FEMALE ADMITTED WITH NEW ONSET PSYCHOISIS WAS GIVEN 3 MG OF ATIVAN PRIOR TO EEG RECORDING. HOW WOULD THIS MEDICATION AFFECT THE EEG - ANSWER INCREASED BETA ACTIVITY 86. BILATERAL ANTERIOR BETA ACTIVITY IS MOST LIKELY TO OCCUR WITH WHAT MEDICATION - ANSWER DIAZEPAM 87. Normal EEG In adults of 70 or older is similar to those younger with the following exception - ANSWER REM sleep is less than 20% of total sleep time 88. LPD's - ANSWER lateralized periodic discharges 89. an abrnormal EEG finding in an awake 55 year old patient would be - ANSWER delta activity 90. If an 8 year old child develops high voltage bilateral delta activity maximal in the posterior regions during hyperventilation, it most likely indicates - ANSWER normal hyperventilation response 91. infantile spams - ANSWER electrodecremental event 92. High voltage theta or delta waves, commonly seen in children 8-14 years, accentuated by hyperventilation: - ANSWER posterior slow waves of youth PSWY 93. which of the following is the most likely posterior dominant rhythm in an awake 5-month old infant - ANSWER 5 Hz 94. by which of the following ages should EEG differentiation of the four stages of non-rem sleep be identifiable in a child born at term - ANSWER 6 months 95. sleep spindles should be synchronous by - ANSWER 2 years 96. Vertex waves in pediatric EEG recordings are generally: - ANSWER sharper 97. The interictal EEG of children with a history of untreated febrile seizures usually is - ANSWER normal 98. Which encephalopathic EEG pattern is most commonly associated with children? - ANSWER OIRDA 99. In the sample above, the activity seen predominantly on the right is most likely _____. a. 14 and 6 Hz positive spikes b. Wicket spikes c. EMG artifact d. 60 Hz - ANSWER Wicket spikes 100. In the sample above, the prominent Delta is likely caused by: a. post ictal activity after a focal temporal seizure b. simultaneous electrode artifacts in several electrodes c. pulse artifact d. contra-coup injury - ANSWER pulse artifact 101. In the sample above, what 2 artifacts are present? a. sweat artifact and eye flutter b. pulse and electrode pops c. pacemaker and EMG d. SEMS (Slow "Rolling lateral" Eye Movements of Sleep) and EKG - ANSWER SEMS (Slow "Rolling lateral" Eye Movements of Sleep) and EKG 102. In the sample above, what is the patient's stage of sleep? a. Drowsy b. Stage I c. Stage III d. REM - ANSWER Stage I 103. Based on the illustration above, what stage of sleep do you think the patient is in at the moment of this sample? a. Drowsy b. Stage I c. Stage III D. REM - ANSWER REM 104. The 3 sample pages above are from the same patient and in sequence. What best describes the pattern seen? a. FIRDA b. ORDA c. SREDA d. Lamda - ANSWER SREDA 105. In the sample above, what best describes the pattern seen? a. primary generalized epileptiform discharge b. right temporal focal discharge with secondary generalization c. RMTD (Rhythmic Mid-Temporal Theta Discharge) d. Wicket Spikes - ANSWER right temporal focal discharge with secondary generalization 106. In the illustration above, what stage of sleep would you say the patient is in based on this sample? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV - ANSWER Stage IV 107. In the sample above, what is the most outstanding feature of the sample and how would you characterize it? a. generalized spike and slow waves, epileptiform activity b. focal spike and slow waves, clinical seizure activity c. sharply contoured rhythmic theta, "wickets" d. temporal slowing, evidence of CVA - ANSWER sharply contoured rhythmic theta, "wickets" 108. In the sample above, what features are circled? a. spikes and slow waves b. occipital slow waves of youth c. Vertex waves and spindles d. focal slowing and wicket spikes - ANSWER Vertex waves and spindles 109. In the sample above, what could be the cause of the eye movements being recorded phase reversing at CZ in the last 2 channels? a. there is a faulty ground/common lead located at Fpz and the electrodes are recording input from the ground/common electrode b. the patient has a prosthetic eye b. the Fp1 and Fp2 electrodes are placed at the F3 and F4 locations c. there is a salt bridge (conductive bridge) between Fp1 and Fp2 - ANSWER there is a faulty ground/common lead located at Fpz and the electrodes are recording input from the ground/common electrode 110. In the illustrations above, what do we call the section that is being measured, between Fp1 and O2? a. Coronal b. Circumferential c. Parasagittal d. Transverse - ANSWER Parasagittal 111. In the illustration above, the mannequin has all the electrodes together in one clump at the side of the neck. Why is this an important technique in electrode application? a. to keep the electrodes from being pulled when the patient moves b. to keep the electrodes from being tangled c. to aide Common Mode Rejection by reducing the 60 Hz noise that is picked up by the electrode lead wires, which can act as an antenna. d. all of the above - ANSWER all of the above 112. In the sample above, what is the first clue that this is an abnormal sample? a. the sample shows polymorphic delta, and a waking adult should not have delta waves as part of their EEG b. the sample shows triphasic waves that are generalized c. the EKG is irregular d. the sample shows polyspikes - ANSWER the sample shows polymorphic delta, and a waking adult should not have delta waves as part of their EEG 113. Necrosis means: a. inflamed tissue b. dead tissue c. irritated tissue d. swollen tissue - ANSWER dead tissue 114. In the illustration above, the arrow indicates which of the following: a. Inferior or Caudad b. Transverse plane c. Superior or Cephalad d. Coronal plane - ANSWER Inferior or Caudad 115. In the illustration above, the arrows "D" incicate _____ and "E" incicate_____ . a. Cephalad and Caudad b. Lateral and Medial c. Anterior and Posterior d. Dorsal and Ventral - ANSWER Cephalad and Caudad 116. In the illustration above, the arrow indicates: a. Superior or Cephalad b. Inferior or Caudad c. Anterior or Posterior d. Ventral or Dorsal - ANSWER Superior or Cephalad 117. In the illustration above the arrow marked "A" indicates _____ and the arrow "B" indicates_____. a. Dorsal, Ventral b. Anterior, Posterior c. Proximal, Distal d. Transverse and Sagittal - ANSWER Proximal, Distal 118. In the illustration above, the arrow marked "C" indicates _____ and the arrow marked "D" indicates _____. a. Dorsal, Ventral b. Proximal, Distal c. Cephalad, Caudad d. Anterior, Posterior - ANSWER Cephalad, Caudad 119. In the illustration above, the arrow marked "E" indicates _____ and the arrow "F" indicates _____. a. Anterior, Posterior b. Sagittal, Transverse c. Superior, Inferior d. Dorsal, Ventral - ANSWER Superior, Inferior 120. Burst Suppression a. rage attack b. benign hypertension c. transient ischemia attack d. deep anesthesia - ANSWER deep anesthesia 121. What clinical states may cause the alpha rhythm to attenuate? a. anxiety b drowsiness c. attention d. all are correct - ANSWER all are correct 122. Slow spike and wave complexes are characteristic of a. juvenile myoclonic epilepsy b. Sturge-Weber c. absence seizures d. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome - ANSWER Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (1.5 Hz spike and wave) 123. Which of the following is the worst prognostic feature in the EEG of a comatose patient? a. voltage below 40 microvolts b. absence of fast activity c. generalized irregular data d. monorhythmic tracing without variability - ANSWER monorhythmic tracing without variability