HESI Pharmacology Nightingale College Fall
2025 BSN 315 course Questions With
Complete Solutions
Course
BSN 315
Question 1:
A client is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor
closely?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Glucose
Correct Answer: B. Potassium
Rationale:
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss through increased urine output.
Monitoring for hypokalemia is essential, as low potassium can lead to cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 2:
The nurse is administering digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which assessment is most
important before giving the drug?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Apical pulse
D. Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: C. Apical pulse
Rationale:
Digoxin slows heart rate and increases cardiac output. If the apical pulse is below 60 bpm, the
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
Question 3:
,A patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin) has an INR of 4.2. What is the most appropriate
action?
A. Administer the next dose
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
C. Give protamine sulfate
D. Increase the dose
Correct Answer: B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
Rationale:
The therapeutic INR for warfarin is typically 2.0–3.0. An INR of 4.2 indicates increased risk of
bleeding. The nurse should hold the dose and contact the healthcare provider.
Question 4:
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Lisinopril
C. Metformin
D. Insulin
Correct Answer: B. Lisinopril
Rationale:
Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is teratogenic and should not be used during pregnancy due to
risk of fetal renal damage and death.
Question 5:
A client reports a dry, persistent cough after starting enalapril. What is the most likely cause?
A. Upper respiratory infection
B. Medication side effect
C. Allergic reaction
D. Heart failure exacerbation
Correct Answer: B. Medication side effect
,Rationale:
ACE inhibitors like enalapril commonly cause a dry, persistent cough due to accumulation of
bradykinin in the respiratory tract.
Question 6:
A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which statement indicates
correct understanding?
A. “I can take as many as I need for chest pain.”
B. “I should chew the tablet for fast absorption.”
C. “I should store the tablets in a light-protected bottle.”
D. “I will take it with a full glass of water.”
Correct Answer: C. “I should store the tablets in a light-protected bottle.”
Rationale:
Nitroglycerin is sensitive to light and moisture. It should be stored in its original, dark-colored
container to maintain potency.
Question 7:
Which of the following is an expected side effect of morphine sulfate?
A. Hypertension
B. Tachypnea
C. Constipation
D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: C. Constipation
Rationale:
Opioids like morphine slow gastrointestinal motility, commonly causing constipation. Patients
may need a bowel regimen to prevent this.
Question 8:
Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
, A. Regular insulin
B. NPH insulin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Insulin lispro
Correct Answer: D. Insulin lispro
Rationale:
Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin, with an onset of 10–15 minutes. It should be taken
immediately before meals to control postprandial glucose.
Question 9:
A client taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizures develops gum overgrowth. What should the
nurse suggest?
A. Increase the dose
B. Stop taking the medication
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Take the medication with food
Correct Answer: C. Practice good oral hygiene
Rationale:
Phenytoin commonly causes gingival hyperplasia. Good oral hygiene and regular dental care
help reduce this side effect.
Question 10:
Which lab value should be monitored in a patient taking gentamicin?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Potassium
C. Creatinine
D. Glucose
Correct Answer: C. Creatinine
Rationale:
Gentamicin is nephrotoxic, so renal function must be monitored. Elevated creatinine levels may
indicate kidney damage.
2025 BSN 315 course Questions With
Complete Solutions
Course
BSN 315
Question 1:
A client is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor
closely?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Glucose
Correct Answer: B. Potassium
Rationale:
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss through increased urine output.
Monitoring for hypokalemia is essential, as low potassium can lead to cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 2:
The nurse is administering digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which assessment is most
important before giving the drug?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Apical pulse
D. Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: C. Apical pulse
Rationale:
Digoxin slows heart rate and increases cardiac output. If the apical pulse is below 60 bpm, the
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
Question 3:
,A patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin) has an INR of 4.2. What is the most appropriate
action?
A. Administer the next dose
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
C. Give protamine sulfate
D. Increase the dose
Correct Answer: B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
Rationale:
The therapeutic INR for warfarin is typically 2.0–3.0. An INR of 4.2 indicates increased risk of
bleeding. The nurse should hold the dose and contact the healthcare provider.
Question 4:
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Lisinopril
C. Metformin
D. Insulin
Correct Answer: B. Lisinopril
Rationale:
Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is teratogenic and should not be used during pregnancy due to
risk of fetal renal damage and death.
Question 5:
A client reports a dry, persistent cough after starting enalapril. What is the most likely cause?
A. Upper respiratory infection
B. Medication side effect
C. Allergic reaction
D. Heart failure exacerbation
Correct Answer: B. Medication side effect
,Rationale:
ACE inhibitors like enalapril commonly cause a dry, persistent cough due to accumulation of
bradykinin in the respiratory tract.
Question 6:
A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which statement indicates
correct understanding?
A. “I can take as many as I need for chest pain.”
B. “I should chew the tablet for fast absorption.”
C. “I should store the tablets in a light-protected bottle.”
D. “I will take it with a full glass of water.”
Correct Answer: C. “I should store the tablets in a light-protected bottle.”
Rationale:
Nitroglycerin is sensitive to light and moisture. It should be stored in its original, dark-colored
container to maintain potency.
Question 7:
Which of the following is an expected side effect of morphine sulfate?
A. Hypertension
B. Tachypnea
C. Constipation
D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: C. Constipation
Rationale:
Opioids like morphine slow gastrointestinal motility, commonly causing constipation. Patients
may need a bowel regimen to prevent this.
Question 8:
Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
, A. Regular insulin
B. NPH insulin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Insulin lispro
Correct Answer: D. Insulin lispro
Rationale:
Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin, with an onset of 10–15 minutes. It should be taken
immediately before meals to control postprandial glucose.
Question 9:
A client taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizures develops gum overgrowth. What should the
nurse suggest?
A. Increase the dose
B. Stop taking the medication
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Take the medication with food
Correct Answer: C. Practice good oral hygiene
Rationale:
Phenytoin commonly causes gingival hyperplasia. Good oral hygiene and regular dental care
help reduce this side effect.
Question 10:
Which lab value should be monitored in a patient taking gentamicin?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Potassium
C. Creatinine
D. Glucose
Correct Answer: C. Creatinine
Rationale:
Gentamicin is nephrotoxic, so renal function must be monitored. Elevated creatinine levels may
indicate kidney damage.
