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Regis NU664C Week 10 Quiz Final Exam 2025 Actual – Verified Questions & Correct Answers | 100% Graded A

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Regis NU664C Week 10 Quiz Final Exam 2025 Actual – Verified Questions & Correct Answers | 100% Graded A

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1



Regis NU664C Week 10 Quiz Final Exam
2025 Actual – Verified Questions &
Correct Answers | 100% Graded A

Question 1

A client with schizophrenia reports hearing voices telling them to harm others. What is the
psychiatric nurse’s priority action?
A. Ask the client to describe the voices
B. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication
C. Reassure the client the voices are not real
D. Engage the client in a distraction activity

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Command hallucinations directing harm to others pose an immediate safety risk,
requiring prompt administration of prescribed antipsychotics to reduce psychotic symptoms.
Exploring the voices, reassurance, or distraction are secondary interventions that may escalate
risk if safety is not first addressed.



Question 2

A client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, is exhibiting grandiosity and impulsivity. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage participation in high-energy group activities
B. Provide a low-stimulus, structured environment
C. Allow the client to make major financial decisions
D. Engage in a debate to challenge their ideas

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A low-stimulus, structured environment reduces external triggers and helps de-
escalate manic symptoms. High-energy activities or debates may increase agitation, and allowing
major decisions risks harmful impulsivity.



Question 3

, 2


A client newly prescribed sertraline for major depressive disorder asks when to expect
improvement. What is the nurse’s best response?
A. “You’ll feel better within 48 hours.”
B. “It typically takes 2–4 weeks for full effects.”
C. “Improvement occurs after 6 months.”
D. “You’ll notice changes within a week.”

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, requires 2–4 weeks to achieve therapeutic effects as serotonin
levels stabilize. Immediate or delayed timelines are inaccurate and may set unrealistic
expectations.



Question 4

A client with generalized anxiety disorder is experiencing acute anxiety. Which intervention
should the nurse implement first?
A. Teach cognitive restructuring
B. Administer prescribed lorazepam
C. Encourage journaling thoughts
D. Use guided imagery

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute anxiety requires immediate symptom relief, which lorazepam, a
benzodiazepine, provides by calming CNS hyperactivity. Cognitive restructuring, journaling, and
imagery are long-term strategies unsuitable for acute distress.



Question 5

A client with borderline personality disorder accuses the nurse of favoring other clients. What is
the nurse’s best response?
A. “That’s not true; I treat everyone the same.”
B. “I hear you’re feeling upset; let’s talk about it.”
C. “You’re being overly sensitive.”
D. “I’ll assign another nurse to avoid this issue.”

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging emotions and inviting discussion validates the client’s feelings and
de-escalates splitting behavior. Denial, dismissal, or reassigning staff may reinforce mistrust or
abandonment fears.

, 3


Question 6

A client with alcohol use disorder is admitted with delirium tremens. Which symptom is most
concerning?
A. Tremors
B. Visual hallucinations
C. Anxiety
D. Sweating

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Visual hallucinations in delirium tremens indicate a severe, life-threatening
withdrawal state, risking seizures or death. Tremors, anxiety, and sweating are earlier, less
critical symptoms.



Question 7

A client prescribed lithium has a serum level of 2.2 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage increased fluid intake
B. Administer the next dose
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Monitor for weight changes

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A lithium level of 2.2 mEq/L indicates toxicity (therapeutic range: 0.6–1.2 mEq/L),
requiring immediate provider notification to prevent severe complications like seizures or coma.
Fluids, dosing, or weight monitoring are inappropriate until toxicity is addressed.



Question 8

A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reports nightmares. Which intervention is
most effective?
A. Encourage reliving the trauma in detail
B. Teach progressive muscle relaxation
C. Administer an antipsychotic
D. Advise avoiding sleep

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Progressive muscle relaxation reduces arousal and promotes sleep, helping manage
PTSD-related nightmares. Reliving trauma may worsen symptoms, antipsychotics are not
indicated, and avoiding sleep is harmful.

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