1|Page
CEA PREP FULL PRACTICE TEST WITH
ACTUAL EXAM TIPS
The patient is exhibiting Left upper lobe lingula
a productive cough and Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in
a low- grade fever. Chest this question precisely. If the cardiac
X-ray on PA view shows margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the
a left lower chest area lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe
of consolidation lingula.
adjacent to the left
border of the heart
approximately 2 rib
spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The
lateral x-ray view shows
this lesion absent of the
window posterior to
the cardiac silhouette.
Which is the most likely
location of this area of
focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
The inability to fully Diastolic dysfunction
relax the myocardium Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
during relaxation is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction
trademark of which of and is common in patients with thickened
the following hypertrophic myocardium.
diagnoses?
,2|Page
An otherwise healthy Calcium channel blocker
African American adult Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
male has been diagnosed Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
with hypertension. He dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
has been restricting his amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management
salt intake, eating a DASH therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and
(Dietary Approaches to lifestyle modifications.
Stop Hypertension)
diet, and exercising
more, but his blood
pressure is still elevated.
Which is the BEST
medication to prescribe
him?
,3|Page
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard
Your patient has been of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions
diagnosed with a 4.5cm with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly
ascending aortic for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery).
aneurysm. Which Although a plain film is able to catch large
medical imaging is aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide
considered standard of multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
care for serial measure the size.
surveillance? Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately
measure the aorta and requires the patient to
undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Which of the following phenylephrine
medications does not Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
cause beta 1 receptors. The remaining three all have beta
stimulation? receptor activity.
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate
A 50-year-old woman
response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying
with a history of
both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous
hypertension presents
extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
with dyspnea on
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the
exertion and orthopnea.
patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
On examination, she has
precipitated this, however, a patient has not
jugular venous
described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on
distention and bilateral
exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a
crackles on lung
state of fluid overload. The only appropriate
auscultation. What is the
response of these available is congestive heart
most likely diagnosis?
failure.
, 4|Page
Your patient with a Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a
history of HFrEF (heart Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
failure with reduced Rationale: The patient should have a protective
ejection fraction) with an mechanism such as an implantable automated
ejection fraction of 40% cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF
who is also not on is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden
optimal medical cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients
therapy has been are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state,
diagnosed with a optimizing their medication regimen and repeating
myocardial infarction this an echo in 2-3 months to re- evaluate for
admission and received improvement in their EF is required by most
emergent placement of a insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at
drug- eluting stent to the discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs
left anterior descending their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
artery. As the medical Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months
home who will manage minimum post-MI.
this patient after A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable
discharge, which benefit for this patient as presented.
medication strategy
would you expect to be
a priority in the
patient's care?
Caucasians
Which of the following Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native
people groups represent Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at increased
the least risk of cardiac risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of
disease? hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than
Caucasians.
CEA PREP FULL PRACTICE TEST WITH
ACTUAL EXAM TIPS
The patient is exhibiting Left upper lobe lingula
a productive cough and Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in
a low- grade fever. Chest this question precisely. If the cardiac
X-ray on PA view shows margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the
a left lower chest area lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe
of consolidation lingula.
adjacent to the left
border of the heart
approximately 2 rib
spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The
lateral x-ray view shows
this lesion absent of the
window posterior to
the cardiac silhouette.
Which is the most likely
location of this area of
focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
The inability to fully Diastolic dysfunction
relax the myocardium Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
during relaxation is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction
trademark of which of and is common in patients with thickened
the following hypertrophic myocardium.
diagnoses?
,2|Page
An otherwise healthy Calcium channel blocker
African American adult Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
male has been diagnosed Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
with hypertension. He dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
has been restricting his amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management
salt intake, eating a DASH therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and
(Dietary Approaches to lifestyle modifications.
Stop Hypertension)
diet, and exercising
more, but his blood
pressure is still elevated.
Which is the BEST
medication to prescribe
him?
,3|Page
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard
Your patient has been of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions
diagnosed with a 4.5cm with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly
ascending aortic for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery).
aneurysm. Which Although a plain film is able to catch large
medical imaging is aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide
considered standard of multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
care for serial measure the size.
surveillance? Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately
measure the aorta and requires the patient to
undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Which of the following phenylephrine
medications does not Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
cause beta 1 receptors. The remaining three all have beta
stimulation? receptor activity.
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate
A 50-year-old woman
response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying
with a history of
both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous
hypertension presents
extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
with dyspnea on
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the
exertion and orthopnea.
patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
On examination, she has
precipitated this, however, a patient has not
jugular venous
described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on
distention and bilateral
exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a
crackles on lung
state of fluid overload. The only appropriate
auscultation. What is the
response of these available is congestive heart
most likely diagnosis?
failure.
, 4|Page
Your patient with a Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a
history of HFrEF (heart Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
failure with reduced Rationale: The patient should have a protective
ejection fraction) with an mechanism such as an implantable automated
ejection fraction of 40% cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF
who is also not on is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden
optimal medical cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients
therapy has been are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state,
diagnosed with a optimizing their medication regimen and repeating
myocardial infarction this an echo in 2-3 months to re- evaluate for
admission and received improvement in their EF is required by most
emergent placement of a insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at
drug- eluting stent to the discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs
left anterior descending their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
artery. As the medical Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months
home who will manage minimum post-MI.
this patient after A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable
discharge, which benefit for this patient as presented.
medication strategy
would you expect to be
a priority in the
patient's care?
Caucasians
Which of the following Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native
people groups represent Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at increased
the least risk of cardiac risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of
disease? hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than
Caucasians.
