NURS 6521 / NURS6521 Advanced
Pharmacology Midterm Exam
100 Questions and Answers | Latest 2025/2026 | Scored 99/100
1 Introduction
This document contains 100 fully verified multiple-choice questions and
answers from the NURS 6521 Midterm Exam, scored 99/100 and aligned
with Walden University’s 2025/2026 curriculum. Designed for MSN and
Nurse Practitioner (NP) students enrolled in Advanced Pharmacology, it
covers critical pharmacological concepts to prepare students for clinical
practice. The questions span Antibiotic and Antimicrobial Agents, Car-
diovascular & Renal Pharmacology, CNS & Pain Management, Endocrine
& Reproductive Systems, Geriatric and Pediatric Pharmacology, and Ad-
verse Effects, Patient Education, and Drug Interactions.
2 Midterm Exam – 100 Questions and Answers
The following 100 questions mirror the NURS 6521 Midterm Exam for-
mat. Each question includes four answer options, with the correct answer
highlighted in bold green. A brief rationale reinforces pharmacological
knowledge.
1. Which antibiotic is most appropriate for a patient with a penicillin
allergy and community-acquired pneumonia?
A. Amoxicillin C. Ceftriaxone
B. Levofloxacin D. Piperacillin-tazobactam
Rationale: Levofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, is effective for pneumonia and safe for
penicillin-allergic patients.
2. What is a common adverse effect of vancomycin?
A. Nephrotoxicity C. Hypertension
B. Hypoglycemia D. Photosensitivity
Rationale: Vancomycin can cause kidney damage, requiring renal function moni-
toring.
NURS 6521 Midterm | Advanced Pharmacology | Verified 100 Questions | 2025/2026
,3. Which drug treats methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
A. Penicillin C. Azithromycin
B. Daptomycin D. Amoxicillin
Rationale: Daptomycin is effective against MRSA, unlike penicillin or azithromycin.
4. What is the mechanism of action of azithromycin?
A. Inhibits cell wall synthesis C. Disrupts DNA replication
B. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Blocks folate synthesis
Rationale: Azithromycin, a macrolide, binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit.
5. Which antifungal is used for systemic candidiasis?
A. Nystatin C. Clotrimazole
B. Fluconazole D. Terbinafine
Rationale: Fluconazole is systemic and effective for candidiasis.
6. What is a side effect of metronidazole?
A. Metallic taste C. Bradycardia
B. Hyperkalemia D. Myalgia
Rationale: Metronidazole commonly causes a metallic taste.
7. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenic-
ity?
A. Amoxicillin C. Cephalexin
B. Tetracycline D. Erythromycin
Rationale: Tetracycline causes fetal tooth discoloration and bone issues.
8. What is the action of isoniazid in tuberculosis treatment?
A. Inhibits mycolic acid synthe- C. Disrupts cell membrane
sis
B. Blocks protein synthesis D. Inhibits DNA gyrase
Rationale: Isoniazid targets mycobacterial cell wall synthesis.
9. Which drug treats Clostridium difficile infection?
NURS 6521 Midterm | Advanced Pharmacology | Verified 100 Questions | 2025/2026
, A. Vancomycin C. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin D. Doxycycline
Rationale: Oral vancomycin is first-line for C. difficile.
10. What monitoring is needed for aminoglycosides?
A. Serum levels and renal func- C. INR
tion
B. Blood glucose D. Liver enzymes
Rationale: Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic and ototoxic, requiring monitoring.
11. Which antibiotic is associated with QT prolongation?
A. Clarithromycin C. Cephalexin
B. Penicillin D. Metronidazole
Rationale: Macrolides like clarithromycin can prolong QT interval.
12. What is the action of sulfonamides?
A. Inhibit folate synthesis C. Disrupt DNA replication
B. Block cell wall synthesis D. Inhibit protein synthesis
Rationale: Sulfonamides interfere with bacterial folate production.
13. Which drug is used for herpes simplex virus (HSV)?
A. Acyclovir C. Oseltamivir
B. Fluconazole D. Isoniazid
Rationale: Acyclovir inhibits viral DNA polymerase in HSV.
14. What is a risk of prolonged antibiotic use?
A. Antibiotic resistance C. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperglycemia D. Anemia
Rationale: Overuse of antibiotics promotes resistant strains.
15. Which antibiotic is safe for a patient with a sulfa allergy?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole C. Sulfadiazine
B. Erythromycin D. Dapsone
Rationale: Erythromycin, a macrolide, is sulfa-free.
16. What is the indication for oseltamivir?
NURS 6521 Midterm | Advanced Pharmacology | Verified 100 Questions | 2025/2026
Pharmacology Midterm Exam
100 Questions and Answers | Latest 2025/2026 | Scored 99/100
1 Introduction
This document contains 100 fully verified multiple-choice questions and
answers from the NURS 6521 Midterm Exam, scored 99/100 and aligned
with Walden University’s 2025/2026 curriculum. Designed for MSN and
Nurse Practitioner (NP) students enrolled in Advanced Pharmacology, it
covers critical pharmacological concepts to prepare students for clinical
practice. The questions span Antibiotic and Antimicrobial Agents, Car-
diovascular & Renal Pharmacology, CNS & Pain Management, Endocrine
& Reproductive Systems, Geriatric and Pediatric Pharmacology, and Ad-
verse Effects, Patient Education, and Drug Interactions.
2 Midterm Exam – 100 Questions and Answers
The following 100 questions mirror the NURS 6521 Midterm Exam for-
mat. Each question includes four answer options, with the correct answer
highlighted in bold green. A brief rationale reinforces pharmacological
knowledge.
1. Which antibiotic is most appropriate for a patient with a penicillin
allergy and community-acquired pneumonia?
A. Amoxicillin C. Ceftriaxone
B. Levofloxacin D. Piperacillin-tazobactam
Rationale: Levofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, is effective for pneumonia and safe for
penicillin-allergic patients.
2. What is a common adverse effect of vancomycin?
A. Nephrotoxicity C. Hypertension
B. Hypoglycemia D. Photosensitivity
Rationale: Vancomycin can cause kidney damage, requiring renal function moni-
toring.
NURS 6521 Midterm | Advanced Pharmacology | Verified 100 Questions | 2025/2026
,3. Which drug treats methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
A. Penicillin C. Azithromycin
B. Daptomycin D. Amoxicillin
Rationale: Daptomycin is effective against MRSA, unlike penicillin or azithromycin.
4. What is the mechanism of action of azithromycin?
A. Inhibits cell wall synthesis C. Disrupts DNA replication
B. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Blocks folate synthesis
Rationale: Azithromycin, a macrolide, binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit.
5. Which antifungal is used for systemic candidiasis?
A. Nystatin C. Clotrimazole
B. Fluconazole D. Terbinafine
Rationale: Fluconazole is systemic and effective for candidiasis.
6. What is a side effect of metronidazole?
A. Metallic taste C. Bradycardia
B. Hyperkalemia D. Myalgia
Rationale: Metronidazole commonly causes a metallic taste.
7. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenic-
ity?
A. Amoxicillin C. Cephalexin
B. Tetracycline D. Erythromycin
Rationale: Tetracycline causes fetal tooth discoloration and bone issues.
8. What is the action of isoniazid in tuberculosis treatment?
A. Inhibits mycolic acid synthe- C. Disrupts cell membrane
sis
B. Blocks protein synthesis D. Inhibits DNA gyrase
Rationale: Isoniazid targets mycobacterial cell wall synthesis.
9. Which drug treats Clostridium difficile infection?
NURS 6521 Midterm | Advanced Pharmacology | Verified 100 Questions | 2025/2026
, A. Vancomycin C. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin D. Doxycycline
Rationale: Oral vancomycin is first-line for C. difficile.
10. What monitoring is needed for aminoglycosides?
A. Serum levels and renal func- C. INR
tion
B. Blood glucose D. Liver enzymes
Rationale: Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic and ototoxic, requiring monitoring.
11. Which antibiotic is associated with QT prolongation?
A. Clarithromycin C. Cephalexin
B. Penicillin D. Metronidazole
Rationale: Macrolides like clarithromycin can prolong QT interval.
12. What is the action of sulfonamides?
A. Inhibit folate synthesis C. Disrupt DNA replication
B. Block cell wall synthesis D. Inhibit protein synthesis
Rationale: Sulfonamides interfere with bacterial folate production.
13. Which drug is used for herpes simplex virus (HSV)?
A. Acyclovir C. Oseltamivir
B. Fluconazole D. Isoniazid
Rationale: Acyclovir inhibits viral DNA polymerase in HSV.
14. What is a risk of prolonged antibiotic use?
A. Antibiotic resistance C. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperglycemia D. Anemia
Rationale: Overuse of antibiotics promotes resistant strains.
15. Which antibiotic is safe for a patient with a sulfa allergy?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole C. Sulfadiazine
B. Erythromycin D. Dapsone
Rationale: Erythromycin, a macrolide, is sulfa-free.
16. What is the indication for oseltamivir?
NURS 6521 Midterm | Advanced Pharmacology | Verified 100 Questions | 2025/2026
