WGU D115 - OA READINESS EXAM
QUESTIONS AND 100% APPROVED
CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ FIRST
CLASS PASS
2025 EXAM
A
+
,PDF: GRADED A+ EXAM
WGU D115 - OA READINESS EXAM
QUESTIONS AND 100% APPROVED
CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ FIRST
CLASS PASS
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth - CORRECT ANSWER A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over the age of 35
The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16
weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio - CORRECT ANSWER C) Perform genetic studies
This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome affected?
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome - CORRECT ANSWER A) Each cell has only one X
chromsome
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of the
X chromosome in each cell.
The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry, microcephaly,
hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect which of the
following genetic conditions?
A) Down Syndrome
B) Cri du chat
C) Charge syndrome
D) Duncan disease - CORRECT ANSWER B) Cri du chat
The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-like cry,
mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small head size
(microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle tone
(hypotonia) in infancy.
2
,PDF: GRADED A+ EXAM
When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the fetus.
D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization. - CORRECT ANSWER A) Adaptive
immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune response, which
is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response, which is controlled by activated B
cells and antibodies.
A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can
manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state
C) Minimally conscious
D) Locked-in syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER C) Minimally conscious
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally conscious
state
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in
TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8 - CORRECT ANSWER D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions - CORRECT ANSWER C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder,
the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - CORRECT ANSWER C) Inability
to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
3
, PDF: GRADED A+ EXAM
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly. -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts, suspiciousness,
disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing. The
mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The FNP suspects
that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - CORRECT ANSWER A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a
recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is characterized
by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot potato" voice;
accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess - CORRECT ANSWER D) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw
muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness,
tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia. After a
complete history and physical, along with thyroid function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of
hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most common cause of this condition is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Postpartum thyroiditis - CORRECT ANSWER B) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is the most
common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which finding in the
patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
4
QUESTIONS AND 100% APPROVED
CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ FIRST
CLASS PASS
2025 EXAM
A
+
,PDF: GRADED A+ EXAM
WGU D115 - OA READINESS EXAM
QUESTIONS AND 100% APPROVED
CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ FIRST
CLASS PASS
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth - CORRECT ANSWER A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over the age of 35
The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16
weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio - CORRECT ANSWER C) Perform genetic studies
This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome affected?
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome - CORRECT ANSWER A) Each cell has only one X
chromsome
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of the
X chromosome in each cell.
The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry, microcephaly,
hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect which of the
following genetic conditions?
A) Down Syndrome
B) Cri du chat
C) Charge syndrome
D) Duncan disease - CORRECT ANSWER B) Cri du chat
The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-like cry,
mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small head size
(microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle tone
(hypotonia) in infancy.
2
,PDF: GRADED A+ EXAM
When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the fetus.
D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization. - CORRECT ANSWER A) Adaptive
immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune response, which
is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response, which is controlled by activated B
cells and antibodies.
A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can
manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state
C) Minimally conscious
D) Locked-in syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER C) Minimally conscious
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally conscious
state
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in
TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8 - CORRECT ANSWER D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions - CORRECT ANSWER C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder,
the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - CORRECT ANSWER C) Inability
to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
3
, PDF: GRADED A+ EXAM
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly. -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts, suspiciousness,
disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing. The
mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The FNP suspects
that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - CORRECT ANSWER A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a
recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is characterized
by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot potato" voice;
accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess - CORRECT ANSWER D) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw
muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness,
tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia. After a
complete history and physical, along with thyroid function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of
hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most common cause of this condition is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Postpartum thyroiditis - CORRECT ANSWER B) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is the most
common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which finding in the
patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
4
