1. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed. Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
2. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
3. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk. The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
4. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums. What
,should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect. Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
5. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. HR 62 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. BP 140/88 mmHg
D. Urine output 400 mL in 8 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances and halos are signs of digoxin
toxicity, especially when paired with bradycardia.
6. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had a true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
7. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
, C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
8. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction is
appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
9. A nurse is teaching a client how to apply clotrimazole vaginal
cream. What instruction is correct?
A. Use during menstruation
B. Stop once symptoms go away
C. Use applicator at bedtime
D. Use with a tampon
Answer: C
Rationale: For maximum effect, apply at bedtime using the
applicator. Avoid tampons during treatment.
10. What should the nurse include when teaching a client taking
ferrous sulfate?
A. Take with milk
B. Take with food if GI upset occurs
C. Expect pale stools
D. Avoid vitamin C
Answer: B
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
2. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
3. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk. The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
4. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums. What
,should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect. Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
5. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. HR 62 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. BP 140/88 mmHg
D. Urine output 400 mL in 8 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances and halos are signs of digoxin
toxicity, especially when paired with bradycardia.
6. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had a true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
7. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
, C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
8. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction is
appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
9. A nurse is teaching a client how to apply clotrimazole vaginal
cream. What instruction is correct?
A. Use during menstruation
B. Stop once symptoms go away
C. Use applicator at bedtime
D. Use with a tampon
Answer: C
Rationale: For maximum effect, apply at bedtime using the
applicator. Avoid tampons during treatment.
10. What should the nurse include when teaching a client taking
ferrous sulfate?
A. Take with milk
B. Take with food if GI upset occurs
C. Expect pale stools
D. Avoid vitamin C
Answer: B
