ACLC Study Guide

______________________________ are the simultaneous or synchronized employment of ______________ with ____________________ and fires to seize, retain, and exploit the initiative. - answer-Air ground operations, ground forces, aviation maneuver 24. Although the ___ is fully capable of conducting attacks, the integration of _________ at the _______ level make the ___ the best formation for conducting reconnaissance, security and movement to contact as primary missions, with attack operations as a secondary mission. - answer-ARS; RQ7B; TRP; ARS (FM 3-04, 2-27) 74. In order to minimize risk and maximize the effectiveness of Army Aviation, commanders must ensure detailed planning and coordination with next higher airspace element in order to integrate their aircraft (manned and unmanned) requirements by using, what? - answer-Air tasking order Airspace control order A reconnaissance-in-force can be conducted by: - answer-Company/troop-sized or larger element A screen is primarily intedned to provide what to a protected force? - answer-Early Warning (FM 3-04, 3-91) According to FM 3-04, use of the 100 gallon internal fuel tank will limit 30mm ammunition to approximately how many rounds? - answer-300 rounds According to FM 3-04, what is the cruise airspeed of the AH-64? - answer-110-120 kts (table 5-1) According to FM 3-04, what is the max remote designated Hellfire missile range from the AH-64? - answer-8 Km (table 5-1) According to FM 7-100.2 within the context of defense, victory usually requires what? - answer-Offensive Action Active Development - answer-involves forceful maneuver, fires, or both to develop the situation. Using reconnaissance by fire is a method to develop the situation, but may be limited or restricted by rules of engagement and engagement criteria Advance guard for a moving force - answer-Offensive; finds and defeats enemy along AoA After gaining contact with the enemy, the aviation reconnaissance force should: - answer-maintain contact with the smallest force possible to prevent decisive engagement while retaining freedom to maneuver and adequate combat power to develop the situation. Airspace Control Order - answer-Provides directions to de-conflict airspace and air defense plans in order to avoid mutual interference, facilitate air defense identification, safely accommodate and expedite airflow, and prevent fratricide. (ATP 2-01 para. B-10) Airspace Coordination Area - answer-A three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly-surface fires. Area Recon - answer-A form of reconnaissance that focuses on obtaining detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity within a prescribed area. Area security is a security task conducted to protect whom within a specific area? - answer-A. Friendly forces B. Installations C. Routes D. Actions Army Aviation attack reconnaissance units are specifically equipped, trained, and organized to conduct what forms of reconnaissance? - answer-Route, Area, Zone Assigned - answer-Placed in units in an organization where such placement is relatively permanent, and/or where such organization controls or administers the unit or personnel for the primary function of the unit. At what level and below are OPFOR units referred to as "elements"? - answer-Battalion Attached - answer-The placement of units or personnel in an organization is relatively temporary. Be-Prepared Mission - answer-A mission assigned to a unit that might be executed. Can a screen be conducted in front of a moving force? - answer-No CCIR - answer-An information requirement identified by the commander as being critical to facilitating timely decision making Combat Power - answer-The total means of destructive, constructive, and information capabilities that a military unit or formation can apply at a given time. (FM 6-0, 9-90) Combat range of the Shadow RQ-7B - answer-125 km Constraint - answer-A restriction placed on the command by a higher command. It may also be based on resource limitations within the command, such as organic fuel, transport capacity, or physical characteristics of the operational environment, such as the number of vehicles that can cross a bridge in a specified time. (FM 6-0, 9-38-39) Convoy security is a type of what form of security - answer-Area Coordination Altitude - answer-Uses altitude to separate users and as the transition between airspace control elements Coordination Level - answer-Used to separate Fixed-Wing and Rotary-Wing aircraft by determining an altitude below which FW aircraft normally does not fly. Cover - answer-A brigade-level, force -oriented mission that protects the division or corps main body from detection and engagement by enemy forces. Critical Tasks of Zone Recon - answer--Find and report enemy forces in zone based on PIR. -Assess the tactical significance of all terrain in zone. -Conduct hasty visual inspection and classification of all bridges, overpasses, underpasses and culverts in zone. -Locate and conduct hasty visual classification of all obstacles, minefields, built up areas and barriers in zone. -Locate and conduct hasty visual classification of all fords, crossing sites and bypasses around obstacles and built up areas in zone. (Fm 3-04, 3-52) Cruise speed of MQ-1C - answer-80 kts Cruise speed of Shadow RQ7B - answer-70-80 kts Cueing - answer-Integration of one or more systems to provide information that directs follow-on collecting of more detailed information by another system. Decisive Operations - answer-Operations that directly accomplish the mission that determines the outcome of a major operation, battle or engagement. Deliberate - answer-Level of detail when detailed and thorough reconnaissance and security tasks require time-intensive, comprehensive, and meticulous mounted and dismounted efforts to observe reconnaissance objectives and develop the situation Direct Support - answer-A support relationship requiring a force to support another specific force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force's request for assistance. Displacement Criteria - answer-A set of conditions that must be met before the aviation security element assumes a follow-on mission. The commander directs either time-based or event-based criteria for the aviation security element. EEFI - answer-A critical aspect of a friendly operation that, if known by the enemy, would subsequently compromise, lead to failure, or limit success of the operation and therefore protected from enemy detection. Effective reconnaissance allows the commander to: - answer--Identify where the enemy is weak/strong -Identify best place to concentrate combat power -Identify where and when to deny the enemy position of advantage Eight Steps of Troop Leading Procedures - answer-1. Receive the Mission 2. Issue a WARNO 3. Make a tentative plan. 4. Initiate Movement. 5. Conduct Reconnaissance. 6. Complete the plan. 7. Issue the order. 8. Supervise and refine. (FM 6-0, para 10-11 Elements of an enemy-focused reconnaissance - answer-Size, strength, composition, location, disposition Elements of Commander's Security Guidance - answer-Engagement/Disengagement Criteria, Focus, Displacement Criteria, Tempo of security