Nur676 Exam Questions And 100% Correct Answers
A 22-year-old woman presents with a "pimple" of her right eyelid. Examination reveals a
2-mm pustule on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. This is most consistent
with:
A. a chalazion
B. a hordeolum
C. blepharitis
D. cellulitis
B. a hordeolum
Treatment options for uncomplicated hordeolum include all of the following except:
A. erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
B. warm compresses to the affected area
C. incision and drainage
D. oral antimicrobial therapy
D. oral antimicrobial therapy
Skip ahead 10 seconds Play volume 0::15 Full screen Brainpower Read More When
educating a patient with scarlet fever, the NP considers that:
A. the patient is at increased risk for developing poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
B. the rash of the illness often peels as the patient is recovering
C. an injectable form of cephalosporin is the drug of choice
D. throat culture will often be negative for group A streptococci
B. the rash of the illness often peels as the patient is recovering
The incubation period for M. pneumoniae is typically:
A. less than 1 week
B. 1 week
C. 2 weeks
,D. 3 weeks
D. 3 weeks
The incubation period for S. pyogenes is typically:
A. 1 to 3 days
B. 3 to 5 days
C. 6 to 9 days
D. 10 to 13 days
B. 3 to 5 days
All of the following are common causes of penicillin treatment failure in streptococcal
pharyngitis except:
A. infection with a beta-lactamase producing Streptococcus strain
B. failure to initiate or complete the antimicrobial course
C. concomitant infection or carriage with a beta-lactamase-producing organism
D. too small penicillin dose
A. an infection by a beta-lactamase producing strain of Streptococcus
Oral decongestant use should be avoided in patients with:
A. allergic rhinitis
B. migraine headache
C. cardiovascular disease
D. chronic bronchitis
C. cardiovascular disease
In the management of allergic rhinitis, leukotriene modifiers should be used as:
A. agent for the relief of nasal itch
B. inflammatory inhibitor
C. rescue drug
D. intervention during acute inflammation
B. inflammatory inhibitor
, Cromolyn mechanism of action is as a/an:
A. anti-immunoglobulin E antibody
B. vasoconstrictor
C. mast cell stabilizer
D. leukotriene modifier
C. mast cell stabilizer
The patient in Question 1 is suffering from giant cell arteritis, therapeutic interventions
for which should include:
A. systemic corticosteroid therapy for many months
B. addition of an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI) to her antihypertensive
regimen
C. warfarin therapy
D. initiation of topirimate (Topamax)
A. systemic corticosteroid therapy for many months
A 74 year-old female with well-controlled hypertension, currently taking
hydrochlorothiazide presents with a 3-day history of unilateral throbbing headache with
difficulty chewing because of the pain. On physical examination you find a tender,
noncompressible temporal artery. Blood pressure (BP) 160/88 mm Hg, apical pulse 98
bpm, and respiratory rate 22/min; the patient is visibly uncomfortable. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. giant cell arteritis
B. imminent transient ischemic attack
C. complicated migraine
D. temporal mandibular joint dysfunction
A. giant cell arteritis
One of the most severe complications of giant cell arteritis is:
A. hemiparesis
B. arthritis
C. blindness
D. uveitis
A 22-year-old woman presents with a "pimple" of her right eyelid. Examination reveals a
2-mm pustule on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. This is most consistent
with:
A. a chalazion
B. a hordeolum
C. blepharitis
D. cellulitis
B. a hordeolum
Treatment options for uncomplicated hordeolum include all of the following except:
A. erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
B. warm compresses to the affected area
C. incision and drainage
D. oral antimicrobial therapy
D. oral antimicrobial therapy
Skip ahead 10 seconds Play volume 0::15 Full screen Brainpower Read More When
educating a patient with scarlet fever, the NP considers that:
A. the patient is at increased risk for developing poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
B. the rash of the illness often peels as the patient is recovering
C. an injectable form of cephalosporin is the drug of choice
D. throat culture will often be negative for group A streptococci
B. the rash of the illness often peels as the patient is recovering
The incubation period for M. pneumoniae is typically:
A. less than 1 week
B. 1 week
C. 2 weeks
,D. 3 weeks
D. 3 weeks
The incubation period for S. pyogenes is typically:
A. 1 to 3 days
B. 3 to 5 days
C. 6 to 9 days
D. 10 to 13 days
B. 3 to 5 days
All of the following are common causes of penicillin treatment failure in streptococcal
pharyngitis except:
A. infection with a beta-lactamase producing Streptococcus strain
B. failure to initiate or complete the antimicrobial course
C. concomitant infection or carriage with a beta-lactamase-producing organism
D. too small penicillin dose
A. an infection by a beta-lactamase producing strain of Streptococcus
Oral decongestant use should be avoided in patients with:
A. allergic rhinitis
B. migraine headache
C. cardiovascular disease
D. chronic bronchitis
C. cardiovascular disease
In the management of allergic rhinitis, leukotriene modifiers should be used as:
A. agent for the relief of nasal itch
B. inflammatory inhibitor
C. rescue drug
D. intervention during acute inflammation
B. inflammatory inhibitor
, Cromolyn mechanism of action is as a/an:
A. anti-immunoglobulin E antibody
B. vasoconstrictor
C. mast cell stabilizer
D. leukotriene modifier
C. mast cell stabilizer
The patient in Question 1 is suffering from giant cell arteritis, therapeutic interventions
for which should include:
A. systemic corticosteroid therapy for many months
B. addition of an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI) to her antihypertensive
regimen
C. warfarin therapy
D. initiation of topirimate (Topamax)
A. systemic corticosteroid therapy for many months
A 74 year-old female with well-controlled hypertension, currently taking
hydrochlorothiazide presents with a 3-day history of unilateral throbbing headache with
difficulty chewing because of the pain. On physical examination you find a tender,
noncompressible temporal artery. Blood pressure (BP) 160/88 mm Hg, apical pulse 98
bpm, and respiratory rate 22/min; the patient is visibly uncomfortable. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. giant cell arteritis
B. imminent transient ischemic attack
C. complicated migraine
D. temporal mandibular joint dysfunction
A. giant cell arteritis
One of the most severe complications of giant cell arteritis is:
A. hemiparesis
B. arthritis
C. blindness
D. uveitis
