Latest Internal Medicine Practice Exam |Question and Answer| Graded A+

Latest Internal Medicine Practice Exam |Question and Answer| Graded A+ A 24-year-old woman presents with complaints of excessive thirst over the past several weeks. She also notes waking up in the middle of the night to urinate. She recently underwent transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary adenoma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Central diabetes insipidus B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Primary polydipsia D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus *Ans* A. Central diabetes insipidus Central diabetes insipidus is the most common type of diabetes insipidus, is associated with deficient secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the posterior pituitary. What is the most common presenting symptom of bladder carcinoma? A. Nocturia B. Painless hematuria C. Unintentional weight loss D. Urinary frequency *Ans* B. Painless hematuria The primary modality to diagnose bladder cancer is with cystoscopy, which allows for direct visualization of tissues and biopsy of any abnormalities. Smoking is the most important risk factor of bladder cancer. A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with fever and a sore throat. A throat swab is performed and the culture comes back positive for group A streptococcus bacteria. What system of his body is at highest risk for permanent damage if proper treatment for his infection is not administered? A. Cardiovascular B. Gastrointestinal C. Musculoskeletal D. Pulmonary *Ans* A. Cardiovascular Risk of rheumatic fever and pericarditis. Remember the Jones criteria for rheumatic fever: Major: Joints, carditis, nodes, erythema marginatum, sydenham chorea. Minor: fever, arthralgia, elevated ESR, elevated CRP, and prolonged PR interval. Need 2 major, or 1 major and 2 minor, or 3 minor A 60-year-old man with intermittent claudication returns to the clinic for interpretation of the results of his ankle-brachial index. Which of the following statements is most accurate? A. A falsely high index may indicate severely hardened, non-compressible leg vessels B. A low ankle-brachial index indicates peripheral venous insufficiency C. An ankle-brachial index of 1.2 indicates severe disease D. It is the ratio of ankle to arm diastolic blood pressure *Ans* A. A falsely high index may indicate severely hardened, non-compressible leg vessels. The ankle-brachial index is calculated by measuring the systolic blood pressure in the ar