1
FPC-CFRN Review Exam-Combined Version A and B Exam Questions with
Verified Solutions.
Myxedema coma is also known as...
A. Thyroid storm
B. Adrenal insufficiency
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperaldosteronism - ANS Hypothyroidism
Most common presentation of a patient with hypothyroidism are all of the following,
except...
A. Cold intolerance with coarse hair
B. Almost exclusively over the age of sixty
C. >90% of cases occur in the winter
D. Primarily in men - ANS Primarily in men
Hypothyroidism occurs primarily in women, almost exclusively over the age of sixty, with
90% of the cases occurring in the winter months.
Your patient presents with following parameters: CVP 0, CI 1, PA S/D 8/4, wedge 3, and
SVR 1,800. What is your diagnosis?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Right ventricular infarction
C. CHF
D. Sepsis - ANS Hypovolemic shock
Careful interpretation of the CVP is important!
Central venous pressure (CVP) describes the pressure of blood in the thoracic vena
cava, near the right atrium of the heart.
CVP reflects the amount of blood returning to the heart and the ability of the heart to
pump the blood into the arterial system.
Drug of choice for profound hypotension in septic shock is?
A. Isotonic crystalloid solution
B. Lavished
C. Nitride
D. Dobutamine - ANS Lavished
Sepsis is by far the most common cause of distributive shock.
The average normal ICP range is...
, 2
The formula to calculate MAP is
A. 2/3 DBP × SBP
B. 2 × DBP + SBP divided by 3
C. 2 × SBP + DBP
D. 2 + DBP × SBP divided by 3 - ANS 2 × DBP + SBP / 3
(Normal 80-100 mmHg)
Normal coronary perfusion pressure (CPP) is
A. 50-60 mmHg
B. 70-90 mmHg
C. 80-100 mmHg
D. <50 mmHg - ANS Normal 50-60 mmHg
Coronary perfusion pressure: (CPP) = DBP-PAWP
The patient presents with the following hemodynamic parameters: CVP 1, CI 1.7, PA
S/D 12/6, wedge 6, and SVR 300. Vital signs are 78/40, HR 60, RR 16, SaO2 98%. The
most likely cause is...
A. RVMI
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Septic shock
D. Hypovolemic shock - ANS Neurogenic shock
SVR < 800, think distributive shock. Next look at the CI; is it less than 2.5? Hypotension
and either a normal heart and/or bradycardia present narrows the type of distributive
shock as being neurogenic shock.
Severe hypothermic Pt.’s are at highest risk for which of the following rhythm?
A. A-Fib
B. Systole
C. V-Fib
D. Sinus Brady - ANS V-Fib
Severe: 20-28 (coma, VF common)
The drug of choice for a patient exhibiting signs and symptoms of malignant
hyperthermia is:
A. Anatine
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Dantrolene
D. Glucagon - ANS Dantrolene
, 3
rate), and an increase in body temperature (hyperthermia) at a rate of up to ~2°C per
hour, temperatures up to 42°C (108°F) are not uncommon.
Induction agent of choice with bronchospastic patients - ANS Ketamine (koala)
Ativan: indication dose, max - ANS Clonazepam, seizures, 1-2 mg, max 4 mg
Manito dose - ANS 1-2 g/kg
Manito: an osmotic diuretic, acts by osmosis to ensure urine production and may
prevent home deposition in the kidney.
Can be administered to avoid acute renal failure when fluid administration has been
ineffective.
Drug choice for cyclic antidepressant OD - ANS Sodium bicarbonate
Drug choice for beta-blocker OD - ANS Glucagon
Fentanyl dose - ANS Sublimate (3 mg/kg)
Treatment for malignant hyperthermia - ANS Atrium (dantrolene)
Drug for GI bleeds - ANS Sand statin (octreotide)
You have been requested to transport a twenty-year-old female from an ICU with a
history of TCA overdose two hours prior to your arrival at the sending facility. Your
cardiovascular assessment of the patient would most likely include all of the following
with this type of toxicity, EXCEPT...
A. Early sinus bradycardia
B. Widening QRS
C. Prolonged QT and PR interval
D. Early tachycardia - ANS Early sinus bradycardia
Sinus tachycardia is the most common cardiac disturbance seen following TCA
overdose.
Rhabdomyolysis treatment - ANS - preventing shock and preserving kidney fan
- NS with sodium bicarbonate
Your patient presents with ABG's of pH 7.39, pCO2 68 HCO3 32, pO2 82. He has
history of COPD and weighs 65 kg. He presents with a history of SOB for 3 days with a
RR 20 and is on 4 L/minute of oxygen by NC. He speaks in four- to five-word
sentences. What acid-base disorder is present?
A. Metabolic acidosis with partial compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis with complete compensation
, 4
The pCO2 is elevated, which is the primary disorder, and the compensatory response is
the increased HCO3. The pH is normal, so there is complete compensation.
Which formula can be used when calculating a cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)?
A. [(DBP × 2) + SBP] divided by 3
B. MAP − ICP
C. ICP − DBP
D. [(DBP + 2) × SBP] divided by 3 - ANS MAP − ICP = CPP
Normal range (mmHg): 70-90
You are managing a patient who has been diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy. His
ammonia levels are elevated. Your management in preparing this patient for transport is
to inhibit elevated protein level by...
A. Administering whole blood
B. Stop GI bleeding and evacuate bowel of blood
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D. Aggressive pain control - ANS Stop GI bleeding and evacuate bowel of blood
Bowel cleansing is the mainstay of therapy for hepatic encephalopathy. Evacuation of
gut derived toxins (intestinal blood, bacteria) and administration of Lactulose (orally or
as an enema) is one of the cornerstones of the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy.
Lactulose may be given orally to acidify the ammonia in the colon and form the
ammonium that can be easily excreted. It is used as a laxative for evacuating blood
from intestines and for reducing ammonia production by intestinal bacteria.
Gastrointestinal bleeding should also be controlled.
Grey Turner's sign may indicate?
A. Meningitis
B. Splenic injury
C. Retroperitoneal bleed
D. Gallbladder - ANS Retroperitoneal bleed
Grey Turner's sign refers to bruising of the flanks and can indicate retroperitoneal or
intraabdominal bleeding, which can take up to 24-48 hours to show up on assessment.
It can be caused by acute pancreatitis, blunt abdominal trauma, ruptured abdominal
aortic aneurysm, or ruptured/hemorrhagic ectopic pregnancy.
Most commonly seen injuries with side impact or "lay it down" motorcycle crashes
include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Open fracture of the femur
B. Pelvic fractures
C. Abrasions to the affected side
FPC-CFRN Review Exam-Combined Version A and B Exam Questions with
Verified Solutions.
Myxedema coma is also known as...
A. Thyroid storm
B. Adrenal insufficiency
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperaldosteronism - ANS Hypothyroidism
Most common presentation of a patient with hypothyroidism are all of the following,
except...
A. Cold intolerance with coarse hair
B. Almost exclusively over the age of sixty
C. >90% of cases occur in the winter
D. Primarily in men - ANS Primarily in men
Hypothyroidism occurs primarily in women, almost exclusively over the age of sixty, with
90% of the cases occurring in the winter months.
Your patient presents with following parameters: CVP 0, CI 1, PA S/D 8/4, wedge 3, and
SVR 1,800. What is your diagnosis?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Right ventricular infarction
C. CHF
D. Sepsis - ANS Hypovolemic shock
Careful interpretation of the CVP is important!
Central venous pressure (CVP) describes the pressure of blood in the thoracic vena
cava, near the right atrium of the heart.
CVP reflects the amount of blood returning to the heart and the ability of the heart to
pump the blood into the arterial system.
Drug of choice for profound hypotension in septic shock is?
A. Isotonic crystalloid solution
B. Lavished
C. Nitride
D. Dobutamine - ANS Lavished
Sepsis is by far the most common cause of distributive shock.
The average normal ICP range is...
, 2
The formula to calculate MAP is
A. 2/3 DBP × SBP
B. 2 × DBP + SBP divided by 3
C. 2 × SBP + DBP
D. 2 + DBP × SBP divided by 3 - ANS 2 × DBP + SBP / 3
(Normal 80-100 mmHg)
Normal coronary perfusion pressure (CPP) is
A. 50-60 mmHg
B. 70-90 mmHg
C. 80-100 mmHg
D. <50 mmHg - ANS Normal 50-60 mmHg
Coronary perfusion pressure: (CPP) = DBP-PAWP
The patient presents with the following hemodynamic parameters: CVP 1, CI 1.7, PA
S/D 12/6, wedge 6, and SVR 300. Vital signs are 78/40, HR 60, RR 16, SaO2 98%. The
most likely cause is...
A. RVMI
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Septic shock
D. Hypovolemic shock - ANS Neurogenic shock
SVR < 800, think distributive shock. Next look at the CI; is it less than 2.5? Hypotension
and either a normal heart and/or bradycardia present narrows the type of distributive
shock as being neurogenic shock.
Severe hypothermic Pt.’s are at highest risk for which of the following rhythm?
A. A-Fib
B. Systole
C. V-Fib
D. Sinus Brady - ANS V-Fib
Severe: 20-28 (coma, VF common)
The drug of choice for a patient exhibiting signs and symptoms of malignant
hyperthermia is:
A. Anatine
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Dantrolene
D. Glucagon - ANS Dantrolene
, 3
rate), and an increase in body temperature (hyperthermia) at a rate of up to ~2°C per
hour, temperatures up to 42°C (108°F) are not uncommon.
Induction agent of choice with bronchospastic patients - ANS Ketamine (koala)
Ativan: indication dose, max - ANS Clonazepam, seizures, 1-2 mg, max 4 mg
Manito dose - ANS 1-2 g/kg
Manito: an osmotic diuretic, acts by osmosis to ensure urine production and may
prevent home deposition in the kidney.
Can be administered to avoid acute renal failure when fluid administration has been
ineffective.
Drug choice for cyclic antidepressant OD - ANS Sodium bicarbonate
Drug choice for beta-blocker OD - ANS Glucagon
Fentanyl dose - ANS Sublimate (3 mg/kg)
Treatment for malignant hyperthermia - ANS Atrium (dantrolene)
Drug for GI bleeds - ANS Sand statin (octreotide)
You have been requested to transport a twenty-year-old female from an ICU with a
history of TCA overdose two hours prior to your arrival at the sending facility. Your
cardiovascular assessment of the patient would most likely include all of the following
with this type of toxicity, EXCEPT...
A. Early sinus bradycardia
B. Widening QRS
C. Prolonged QT and PR interval
D. Early tachycardia - ANS Early sinus bradycardia
Sinus tachycardia is the most common cardiac disturbance seen following TCA
overdose.
Rhabdomyolysis treatment - ANS - preventing shock and preserving kidney fan
- NS with sodium bicarbonate
Your patient presents with ABG's of pH 7.39, pCO2 68 HCO3 32, pO2 82. He has
history of COPD and weighs 65 kg. He presents with a history of SOB for 3 days with a
RR 20 and is on 4 L/minute of oxygen by NC. He speaks in four- to five-word
sentences. What acid-base disorder is present?
A. Metabolic acidosis with partial compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis with complete compensation
, 4
The pCO2 is elevated, which is the primary disorder, and the compensatory response is
the increased HCO3. The pH is normal, so there is complete compensation.
Which formula can be used when calculating a cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)?
A. [(DBP × 2) + SBP] divided by 3
B. MAP − ICP
C. ICP − DBP
D. [(DBP + 2) × SBP] divided by 3 - ANS MAP − ICP = CPP
Normal range (mmHg): 70-90
You are managing a patient who has been diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy. His
ammonia levels are elevated. Your management in preparing this patient for transport is
to inhibit elevated protein level by...
A. Administering whole blood
B. Stop GI bleeding and evacuate bowel of blood
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D. Aggressive pain control - ANS Stop GI bleeding and evacuate bowel of blood
Bowel cleansing is the mainstay of therapy for hepatic encephalopathy. Evacuation of
gut derived toxins (intestinal blood, bacteria) and administration of Lactulose (orally or
as an enema) is one of the cornerstones of the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy.
Lactulose may be given orally to acidify the ammonia in the colon and form the
ammonium that can be easily excreted. It is used as a laxative for evacuating blood
from intestines and for reducing ammonia production by intestinal bacteria.
Gastrointestinal bleeding should also be controlled.
Grey Turner's sign may indicate?
A. Meningitis
B. Splenic injury
C. Retroperitoneal bleed
D. Gallbladder - ANS Retroperitoneal bleed
Grey Turner's sign refers to bruising of the flanks and can indicate retroperitoneal or
intraabdominal bleeding, which can take up to 24-48 hours to show up on assessment.
It can be caused by acute pancreatitis, blunt abdominal trauma, ruptured abdominal
aortic aneurysm, or ruptured/hemorrhagic ectopic pregnancy.
Most commonly seen injuries with side impact or "lay it down" motorcycle crashes
include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Open fracture of the femur
B. Pelvic fractures
C. Abrasions to the affected side
