Test Bank For Fundamentals of Abnormal Psychology 8th Edition By Comer

1. One who systematically gathers information in order to describe, predict, and explain abnormality is a clinical: A) mentalist. B) legalist. C) scientist. D) practitioner. 2. If a person wants a career focused on detecting, assessing, and treating abnormal patterns of functioning, that person should look into becoming a clinical: A) practitioner. B) researcher. C) historian. D) statistician. 3. The stated and unstated rules for proper conduct that a society establishes are referred to as: A) norms. B) culture. C) morality. D) conventions. 4. Just decades ago, a woman's love for racecar driving would have been considered abnormal. This statement illustrates: A) how dangerous most mentally ill people actually are. B) that abnormality can be situational. C) that everyone is a little eccentric. D) that drug use causes people to become mentally ill. 5. The history, values, institutions, habits, skills, technology, and art of a society make up that society's: A) laws. B) norms. C) culture. D) conventions. 6. Behavior that violates legal norms is: A) deviant and criminal. B) distressful and criminal. C) deviant and psychopathological. D) distressful and psychopathological. Page 1 7. Which depressed person would be the LEAST likely to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, because of specific circumstances? A) someone whose mother was depressed B) someone whose community was destroyed by a tornado C) someone who was experiencing a chemical brain imbalance D) someone who was also an alcoholic 8. If a person experienced anxiety or depression following a significant natural disaster, we would say that the person was: A) suffering from a mental illness. B) deviant but not dangerous. C) exhibiting a typical reaction. D) statistically deviant. 9. George hears voices that others do not but is not distressed by them. This illustrates that: A) distress must always be used to determine abnormality. B) behavior that is not really dangerous can never be considered abnormal. C) distress does not have to be present for a person's behavior to be considered abnormal. D) behavior that is not distressful is not abnormal. 10. People who engage in frenetic, manic activity may not experience distress even though their behaviors are problematic. They are: A) nevertheless considered to be abnormal. B) not abnormal because abnormality requires distress. C) doing something illegal, not abnormal. D) no longer considered abnormal but were considered abnormal in the past. 11. An individual has a 9-to-5 job. However, this person seldom gets up early enough to be at work on time and expresses great distress over this behavior. This individual's behavior would be considered abnormal because it is: A) disturbed. B) deviant. C) dysfunctional. D) dangerous. Page 2 12. Which aspect of the definition of abnormality includes the inability to care for oneself and work productively? A) distress B) deviance C) dysfunction D) danger to self or others 13. Which person would NOT be considered abnormal, despite the fact that the person's behavior is dysfunctional? A) someone who is too confused to drive safely B) someone who parties so much that he or she cannot go to class C) someone who goes on a hunger strike to protest social injustice D) someone who cannot stay alone for even one night 14. A person who is suicidal and can see no reason for living BEST fits which definition of abnormality? A) deviance B) distress C) danger D) dysfunction 15. A Secret Service agent steps in front of the president of the United States, prepared to be killed or injured if the president's safety is threatened. Psychologically speaking, the Secret Service agent's behavior is: A) distressing and psychologically abnormal. B) functional and not psychologically abnormal. C) dysfunctional and psychologically abnormal. D) dangerous but not psychologically abnormal. 16. Despite popular misconceptions, most people with psychological problems are not: A) dysfunctional. B) dangerous. C) distressing. D) deviant. Page 3 17. According to Thomas Szasz's views, the deviations that some call mental illness are really: A) mental illnesses. B) problems in living. C) caused by one's early childhood experiences. D) eccentric behaviors with a biological cause. 18. A researcher spends 15 or more hours per day conducting experiments or doing library reading and records observations on color-coded index cards. This person lives alone in the country but doesn't interfere with others' lives. The BEST description of the researcher's behavior is that it is: A) eccentric. B) abnormal. C) dangerous. D) dysfunctional. 19. College students who drink so much that it interferes with their lives, health, and academic careers are often not diagnosed as engaging in abnormal behavior because: A) the behavior is not illegal. B) they are just considered eccentric. C) they are not harming anyone but themselves. D) drinking is considered part of the college subculture. 20. Using “the four Ds” to define abnormal behavior: A) allows us to create diagnoses that are clear-cut and not debatable. B) allows us to eliminate those who are merely eccentric. C) allows us to include those who experience no distress. D) is still often vague and subjective. 21. Lady Gaga and other eccentrics are usually not considered to be experiencing a mental illness because: A) they are not deviant. B) they freely choose and enjoy their behavior. C) they are only dangerous to others, not to themselves. D) while they are distressed by their behavior, others are not. Page 4 22. Which is NOT a characteristic of eccentric individuals noted by researchers in the field? A) being a poor speller B) having a diagnosable mental illness C) being creative D) a mischievous sense of humor 23. Studies show that eccentric individuals are more likely than those with mental disorders to say: A) I feel like my behavior has been thrust on me. B) I'm different and I like it. C) I am in a lot of pain and I suffer a great deal. D) I wish I were not so “unique.” 24. Which component is NOT noted by clinical theorist Jerome Frank as essential to all forms of therapy? A) series of contacts B) healer C) third-party payer D) sufferer who seeks relief 25. One who sees abnormality as a problem in living usually refers to those seeking help with problems in living as: A) pupils. B) patients. C) trainees. D) clients. 26. The use of exorcism in early societies suggests a belief that abnormal behavior was caused by: A) germs. B) poisons. C) evil spirits. D) psychological trauma. Page 5 27. A person seeking help for a psychological abnormality is made to drink bitter herbal potions and then submit to a beating, in the hope that “evil spirits” will be driven from the person's body. This form of “therapy” is called: A) exorcism. B) shaman. C) couvade. D) trephination. 28. A person being treated by a shaman would MOST likely be undergoing: A) psychoanalysis. B) gender-sensitive therapy. C) community-based treatment. D) an exorcism. 29. Hippocrates believed that treatment for mental disorders should involve: A) releasing evil spirits trapped in the brain. B) bringing the four body humors back into balance. C) punishing the body for its sins. D) bloodletting. 30. Hippocrates's contribution to the development of understanding mental illness was the view that such conditions were the result of: A) stress. B) natural, physical causes. C) brain pathology. D) spiritual deviations. 31. Hippocrates thought that abnormal behavior resulted from an imbalance in the four humors, one of which was: A) water. B) lymph gland fluid. C) phlegm. D) cerebrospinal fluid. 32. Hippocrates attempted to treat mental disorders by: A) hypnotizing patients. B) chaining patients to walls. C) correcting underlying physical pathology. D) encouraging patients to speak about past traumas. Page 6 33. Those who lived during the Middle Ages might find that a flash mob is MOST similar to: A) mass madness. B) melancholia. C) trephination. D) eco-terrorism. 34. In the Middle Ages, which model of mental illness did MOST people believe in? A) the moral model B) the medical model C) the psychogenic model D) the demonology model 35. Which statement is NOT a reason that demonology dominated views of abnormality in Europe in the Middle Ages? A) The power of the clergy increased greatly. B) The Church rejected scientific forms of investigation. C) The Church controlled education. D) The culture rejected religious beliefs. 36. Which is NOT a disorder that people in the Middle Ages included in the general term “mass madness”? A) tarantism B) lycanthropy C) exorcism D) St. Vitus' dance 37. Tarantism and lycanthropy are examples of: A) exorcism. B) mass madness. C) physical pathology causing mental illness. D) disorders that were treated with trephination. 38. St. Vitus' dance, characterized by people suddenly going into convulsions, jumping around, and dancing, was also known as: A) lycanthropy. B) melancholia. C) phlegmatism. D) tarantism. Page 7 39. Those MOST often in charge of treating abnormality in the Middle Ages in Europe were: A) physicians. B) nobility. C) peasants. D) clergy. 40. The individual considered to be the founder of the modern study of psychopathology is: A) Hippocrates. B) Johann Weyer. C) Dorothea Dix. D) Emil Kraepelin. 41. Johann Weyer, considered to be the founder of the modern study of psychopathology, was a physician in the: A) 1200s. B) 1500s. C) 1700s. D) 1800s. 42. In the 1600s, Pilgrims in Europe who sought “psychic healing” would have been MOST likely to go to: A) Bethlehem Hospital in London. B) Gheel, Belgium. C) La Bicêtre in Paris. D) Athens, Greece. 43. In the early asylums, treatment for mental illness began with the intention to provide: A) harsh treatment. B) care and treatment. C) religious therapies. D) psychogenic therapy. 44. In many areas in the 1500s, asylums such as Bethlehem Hospital in London became: A) shrines. B) tourist attractions. C) sheltered workshops. D) centers of moral treatment. Page 8 45. What is the distinction of Bethlehem Hospital, founded in London in 1547? A) Popularly called “Bedlam,” it came to represent deplorable conditions for patients. B) It was the first asylum founded by Hippocrates. C) It was founded by Henry VIII as a place to house his numerous ex-wives. D) It was the first asylum where the moral treatment of patients was practiced. 46. Who brought the reforms of moral therapy to northern England? A) John Dix B) Joseph Gall C) William Tuke D) Benjamin Rush 47. The basis for moral treatment of asylum patients was the belief that: A) mental problems had a biological basis. B) demonology was a cause of mental illness. C) mental illness should be treated humanely and with respect. D) the cause of mental illness was immoral behavior. 48. Who brought the reforms of moral therapy to the United States? A) John Dix B) Joseph Gall C) William Tuke D) Benjamin Rush 49. The American schoolteacher who lobbied state legislatures for laws to mandate humane treatment of people with mental disorders was: A) William Tuke. B) Dorothea Dix. C) Clifford Beers. D) Benjamin Rush. 50. Which is a component of the legacy of Dorothea Dix? A) deinstitutionalization B) state hospitals C) federal prisons D) privatization of mental hospitals Page 9 51. Which was NOT a factor in the decline in the use of moral treatment and the rise in the use of custodial care in mental hospitals at the end of the twentieth century? A) the total lack of success of moral treatment B) too many hospitals, resulting in funding and staffing shortages C) prejudice against poor, immigrant patients in hospitals D) lack of public and private funding for hospitals 52. The “moral treatment” movement rapidly declined in the late nineteenth century because: A) prejudice against those with mental disorders decreased. B) fewer and fewer immigrants were being sent to mental hospitals. C) all patients needing treatment had to be helped. D) hospitals became underfunded and overcrowded. 53. One factor that contributed to the decline of moral therapy was: A) prejudice against people with mental disorders. B) it was shown to be completely ineffective. C) too few patients were hospitalized. D) psychogenic drugs replaced it. 54. Hippocrates's model of mental illness can be described as: A) psychiatric. B) somatogenic. C) psychogenic. D) supernatural. 55. The fact that some people in the advanced stages of AIDS experience neurological damage that results in psychological abnormality supports what type of perspective about abnormal psychological functioning? A) somatogenic B) psychogenic C) moral D) deterministic 56. The discovery of the link between general paresis and syphilis was made by: A) Benjamin Rush. B) Emil Kraepelin. C) Fritz Schaudinn D) Richard von Krafft-Ebing. Page 10 57. The finding that syphilis causes general paresis is important because it supports the idea that: A) mental patients should be deinstitutionalized. B) organic factors can cause mental illness. C) antibiotics cannot “cure” viral diseases. D) physicians should be the ones treating mental illnesses. 58. For those who hold the somatogenic view of mental illness, the best treatment setting for those with mental disorders would be a: A) community center. B) spa and retreat center. C) counselor's office. D) hospital. 59. Which of statement LEAST supports the somatogenic view of abnormal behavior? A) Hypnotism has helped people give up smoking. B) Alcoholism tends to run in families. C) People with Lyme disease often have psychological symptoms. D) Most people with depression are helped with medication. 60. Eugenic sterilization reflected the _____ perspective on abnormality. A) somatogenic B) psychoanalytic C) cultural D) managed care 61. The somatogenic treatment for mental illness that seems to have been MOST successful was the use of: A) psychosurgery. B) psychoanalysis. C) various medications. D) insulin shock therapy. 62. Which option is NOT associated with hypnotism? A) Friedrich Anton Mesmer B) the somatogenic perspective C) hysterical disorders D) the late 1700s Page 11 63. Friedrich Anton Mesmer became famous—or infamous—for his work with patients suffering from bodily problems with no physical basis. His patients' disorders are termed: A) somatogenic. B) hysterical. C) phlegmatic. D) bilious. 64. An otherwise “normal” person under the influence of hypnotic suggestion is made to bark, sit, and fetch like a dog. The occurrence of these “abnormal” behaviors lends support to which explanation for abnormality? A) psychogenic B) somatogenic C) parthenogenic D) schizophrenegenic 65. Which perspective was supported by the discovery that the symptoms of hysteria (e.g., mysterious paralysis) could be induced by hypnosis? A) psychogenic B) somatogenic C) demonological D) moral 66. Bernheim and Liébault used hypnotic suggestion to induce hysterical disorders in “normal” people, providing support for which perspective of abnormality? A) psychogenic B) somatogenic C) demonological D) sociocultural 67. The early psychogenic treatment that was studied by Josef Breuer and Sigmund Freud was: A) prayer. B) bleeding. C) hypnotism. D) trephining. Page 12 68. Acquiring insight about unconscious psychological processes is a feature of: A) moral therapy. B) psychoanalysis. C) psychogenic therapy. D) all psychological therapy. 69. Psychoanalysis was developed as a form of __________ therapy. A) moral B) outpatient C) behavioral D) somatogenic 70. Psychoanalysis, as Freud developed it, was a form of what we now would call: A) mesmerism. B) outpatient therapy. C) community psychology. D) Kraepelinism. 71. Which patient would be MOST likely to benefit from psychoanalytic treatment? A) a person who needs to make profound behavioral changes very quickly B) a person who has difficulty expressing ideas and feelings verbally C) someone who is insightful and thinks clearly D) someone who is severely disturbed and in a mental hospital 72. Surveys have found that 43 percent of people today believe that mental illness is caused by: A) sinful behavior. B) lack of willpower. C) lack of self-discipline. D) something people bring on themselves. 73. People with severe mental illnesses are LESS likely to be ______ than they were 50 years ago. A) medicated with psychotropic drugs B) hospitalized in mental institutions C) homeless or in prison D) treated in outpatient facilities Page 13 74. If a person's primary symptom were excessive worry, the psychotropic drug for that person would be an _____ medication. A) antipsychotic. B) antidepressant. C) antibiotic. D) antianxiety. 75. Which BEST reflects the impact of deinstitutionalization? A) Fine; most people with severe disturbances are receiving treatment. B) Not so well; many people with severe disturbances are in jail or on the street. C) Better than hospitalization; at least care is consistent and there is no shuttling back and forth through different levels of care. D) Well; communities have been able to pick up the care of those with severe disturbances and provide effective treatment for most all of them. 76. A medical researcher develops a drug that decreases symptoms of depression and other “mood” disorders. The general term for this type of drug is: A) psychogenic. B) somatogenic. C) psychotropic. D) somatotropic. 77. Drugs designed to decrease extremely confused and distorted thinking are termed: A) antidepressant. B) antianxiety. C) mood stabilizers D) antipsychotic. 78. Drugs that alleviate the symptoms of mental dysfunction by affecting the brain are called ________ medications. A) psychedelics B) antineurotics C) psychotropics D) psychophysiologicals Page 14 79. Dave is confused and usually thinks that he is an ancient king. If his psychiatrist ordered medication, it would MOST likely be a(n) __________ drug. A) stimulant B) antianxiety C) antipsychotic D) antidepressant 80. Jena is experiencing sadness, lack of energy, and low self-worth. The condition is chronic and severe. If her psychiatrist prescribed medication, it would likely be a(n) __________ drug. A) stimulant B) antianxiety C) antipsychotic D) antidepressant 81. The number of patients hospitalized in mental hospitals in the United States today is MOST similar to the number hospitalized in: A) 1990. B) 1970. C) 1960. D) 1950. 82. One cause of the increase in homeless individuals in recent decades has been the: A) policy of deinstitutionalization. B) use of psychotropic medication. C) decrease in the use of private psychotherapy. D) move to the community mental health approach. 83. In the United States today, one is MOST likely to find a severely ill mental patient: A) in a mental hospital. B) on the street or in jail. C) receiving drug counseling in a shelter. D) in private therapy paid for by the state. 84. The approach to therapy for mental illness in which a person directly pays a psychotherapist for services is called: A) sociological therapy. B) the medical approach. C) private psychotherapy. D) the community mental health approach. Page 15 85. Which statement BEST reflects the current care for people with less severe disturbances? A) Many are treated by generalists who specialize in a number of different types of disorders. B) Private insurance companies are likely to cover outpatient treatment. C) It is difficult to find treatment for someone experiencing a “problem in living.” D) Private psychotherapy is available only to the wealthy. 86. Today about _____ make up the daily patient population in mental health hospitals. A) 10,000 B) 40,000 C) 250,000 D) 600,000 87. Partly because of this emphasis in mental health, many suffering from mental health disorders are currently homeless or incarcerated. A) the use of psychotropic medications B) psychoanalysis C) somatogenic perspective D) community mental health approach 88. Suicide prevention, substance abuse treatment, and eating disorder clinics are MOST similar to which kind of market? A) Whole Foods, a large market that offers many different types of food B) Sweet Cupcakes, a store that specializes in only one type of food C) Corner Market, a Mom-and-Pop store that carries rather old-fashioned food D) New York Deli, a high-end market that serves only the wealthy 89. A significant change in the type of care offered now compared to the time Freud was practicing is that: A) fewer patients are suffering from anxiety and depression. B) fewer patients receive outpatient treatment. C) people are more likely to receive treatment for “problems in living.” D) there are fewer specialized programs focused on treating only one type of problem. Page 16 90. Efforts to address the needs of children who are at risk for developing mental disorders (babies of teenage mothers, children of those with severe mental disorders) are categorized as: A) positive psychology. B) psychoanalysis. C) eco-anxiety treatment. D) prevention. 91. Which pair of words BEST describes the current emphasis in mental health? A) prevention and positive psychology B) promotion and public psychology C) perfection and primary psychology D) people and professional psychology 92. If a university had a first-year program designed to ease the transition from high school to college and to decrease the dropout rates, that program would have elements MOST similar to: A) prevention programs. B) positive psychology programs. C) deinstitutionalization programs. D) outpatient therapy. 93. Efforts to help people develop personally meaningful activities and healthy relationships are a part of: A) eco-anxiety treatment. B) a somatogenic approach to treatment. C) the clinical practice of positive psychology. D) an eccentric's level of creativity. 94. A psychologist focuses on optimism, wisdom, happiness, and interpersonal skills. The psychologist is MOST likely: A) a psychoanalyst. B) a positive psychologist. C) a community mental health worker. D) a rehabilitation specialist. Page 17 95. If a university had a program designed to help students achieve their full potential, physically, educationally, and spiritually, that program would have elements MOST similar to: A) mental health prevention programs. B) positive psychology programs. C) deinstitutionalization programs. D) outpatient therapy. 96. Immigration trends and differences in birthrates among minority groups in the United States have caused psychological treatment to become more: A) hospital focused. B) multicultural. C) positive. D) dependent on the use of medications. 97. A person receiving multicultural therapy could expect all of these effects EXCEPT: A) greater sensitivity to cultural issues in therapy. B) a focus on the uniqueness of the issues faced. C) a focus on healthy feelings and actions rather than on problems. D) sensitivity to the traditions of that person's particular culture. 98. Which feature is NOT common in managed care programs? A) limited pool of practitioners for patients to choose from B) preapproval for treatment by the insurance company C) ongoing reviews and assessments D) patient choice in number of therapy sessions 99. Parity laws for insurance coverage of mental health treatment mandate that: A) physicians and psychologists must have the same level of education. B) coverage for mental and physical problems must be reimbursed equally. C) the number of sessions allowed for treatment of mental and physical treatment must be equal. D) patients must be allowed to choose the therapist they want for treatment. 100. A physician who has specialized treatment in mental health issues is called a: A) psychiatrist. B) clinical psychologist. C) psychodiagnostician. D) psychoanalyst. Page 18 101. After medical school, a psychiatrist receives three to four years of training in the treatment of abnormal mental functioning; this training is called a(n): A) residency. B) internship. C) practicum. D) community mental health tour. 102. One major difference between psychiatrists and clinical psychologists is that psychiatrists: A) went to medical school. B) must work in a medical setting. C) are allowed to do psychotherapy. D) have more training in mental illness. 103. Which statement is true about the participation of women in the mental health professions? A) There are more women in social work than in counseling professions. B) Women are least often found in medicine and most often found in social work. C) The profession with the highest percentage of women is counseling. D) The majority of psychiatrists and clinical psychologists are men. 104. The specialty that presently has the largest number of practitioners is: A) psychiatry. B) social work. C) psychology. D) counseling. 105. A person who works in a mental hospital analyzing various treatment protocols to see how multicultural factors impact success rates is MOST likely a: A) clinical researcher. B) clinical psychologist. C) psychiatrist. D) psychiatric social worker. 106. A person who is hard at work trying to discover which combination of environmental and genetic factors produces schizophrenia is MOST likely a: A) clinical researcher. B) psychiatric social worker. C) family therapist. D) counseling psychologist. Page 19 107. A general understanding of the underlying nature, causes, and treatments of abnormal behavior is called: A) theoretical. B) nomothetic. C) idiographic. D) correlational. 108. As opposed to clinical practitioners, who search for individualistic understanding of human behavior, clinical researchers search for general truths about abnormality. The approach of clinical researchers is: A) idiosyncratic. B) nomosynthetic. C) idiographic. D) nomothetic. 109. If you were using the scientific method to conduct research in abnormal psychology, you would be seeking: A) an idiographic understanding. B) to advance conventional wisdom. C) a nomothetic understanding. D) to change current graduate training. 110. Which is NOT considered a research method? A) the case study B) a correlation C) an experiment D) a treatment plan for an individual 111. The idea that children from single-parent families show more depression than those from two-parent families is a(n): A) variable. B) experiment. C) correlation. D) hypothesis. Page 20 112. A person says, “I think the Red Sox win more games on Tuesdays than on any other day.” Although this statement is not very scientific, it is a(n): A) research finding. B) hypothesis. C) example of a case study. D) research conclusion. 113. A psychologist does a study of an individual involving a history, tests, and interviews of associates. A clear picture is constructed of this individual so her behavior is better understood. This study is a(n): A) hypothesis. B) case study. C) experimental study. D) correlation. 114. Which is an example of a case study? A) a study involving use of a control group B) a long-term study of a single clinical client C) a study of all the cases of a disorder in a community D) the creation of a disorder in a group of lab rats 115. Case studies are useful for: A) forming general laws of behavior. B) studying unusual problems. C) conducting scientific experiments. D) eliminating observer bias. 116. The case study MOST likely to be helpful in the study of abnormality would be one that included a well-tested, research-supported form of therapy used to treat a(n): A) common disorder. B) depression. C) substance abuse. D) uncommon disorder. 117. Which is NOT a way that case studies are useful? A) studying unusual problems B) learning a great deal about a particular patient C) suggesting new areas for further study D) determining general laws of behavior Page 21 118. The major ethical concern with research on Facebook users is: A) there are not enough Facebook users to make the research worthwhile. B) Facebook users don't always know they are being studied. C) research projects have not been approved by universities where they are conducted. D) it is unethical to observe public behavior. 119. A researcher is considering whether to gather online data from Facebook users without informing the users that their data are being used. In terms of research ethics, which question is the MOST relevant? A) Are Facebook postings considered “public behavior”? B) Are Facebook users a random sample of whatever population is being studied? C) Will Facebook users be able to sue if they think their rights are being violated? D) Will the potential benefits of the research outweigh the potential risks to Facebook users? 120. A researcher finds that individuals who report large numbers of “hassles” in their lives usually also report higher levels of stress. Those who report fewer “hassles” generally report lower levels of stress. The correlation between number of “hassles” and stress level is: A) positive. B) negative. C) curvilinear. D) nonexistent. 121. “The heavier you are, the more food you are likely to eat.” If true, this statement expresses: A) no correlation at all. B) a causal relationship. C) a positive correlation. D) a negative correlation. 122. If stress levels and physical health are negatively correlated, the researcher can conclude that: A) stress causes people to have poor health. B) as stress increases, health decreases. C) poor health causes people to experience stress. D) mental illness causes both stress and poor health. Page 22 123. Correlation coefficients indicate: A) the magnitude and direction of the relationship between variables. B) the cause-and-effect relationship between variables. C) the internal and external validity between variables. D) the significance and variability between variables. 124. Which correlation coefficient is of the highest magnitude? A) +0.05 B) –0.81 C) +0.60 D) –0.01 125. Which correlation coefficient represents the weakest relationship? A) –0.95 B) –0.06 C) +0.30 D) +0.54 126. If the correlation between severity of depression and age is –0.05, it means that: A) older people have more severe depression. B) older people have less severe depression. C) younger people have almost no depression. D) there is no consistent relationship between age and severity of depression. 127. Which statement is true of the correlation coefficient? A) It ranges from 0.00 to +1.00 and indicates the strength of the relationship between two variables. B) It ranges from –1.00 to +1.00 and indicates the strength and the direction of the relationship between two variables. C) It ranges from 0.00 to +1.00 and indicates the strength and the direction of the relationship between two variables. D) It ranges from –1.00 to +1.00 and indicates the strength of the relationship between two variables and the total variability of those measurements. Page 23 128. A student says, “Quick! I have to take a test in two minutes. I need help remembering what kind of correlation coefficient shows a weak relationship between two variables.” Which will help the student? A) a correlation coefficient that is statistically significant B) a correlation coefficient close to minus one (–1) C) a correlation coefficient close to zero (0) D) a correlation coefficient that doesn't prove a causal relationship between the variables 129. A researcher finds a strong positive correlation between ratings of life stress and symptoms of depression. Therefore, the researcher may be confident that: A) life stress causes symptoms of depression. B) symptoms of depression cause life stress. C) something else causes stress and depression. D) life stress and depression are related. 130. Which is NOT a merit of the correlational method? A) It can be replicated. B) It can be analyzed statistically. C) Its results provide general information. D) It provides individual information. 131. Which results are MOST likely from an epidemiological study? A) The rate of suicide is higher in Ireland than in the United States. B) Autism is caused by influenza vaccinations. C) Child abuse is often found in the backgrounds of those with multiple personalities. D) Alcoholism runs in families. 132. The form of correlational research that seeks to find how many new cases of a disorder occur in a group in a given time period is termed: A) longitudinal (incidence). B) longitudinal (prevalence). C) epidemiological (incidence). D) epidemiological (prevalence). 133. The prevalence of sexual dysfunction in older men seen at a clinic tells you the: A) total number of older men with sexual dysfunction at the clinic. B) risk of a man developing sexual dysfunction. C) number of new cases of sexual dysfunction over a period of time. D) rate of sexual dysfunction in the community. Page 24 134. Studies that determine the incidence and prevalence of a disorder in a particular population are called ______ studies. A) longitudinal B) experimental C) developmental D) epidemiological 135. The number of new cases of a disorder in a population that emerge in a particular time interval is called the: A) incidence. B) prevalence. C) correlation. D) epidemiology. 136. There were 10 new cases of schizophrenia in a small town in the Midwest this week. This observation refers to the _____ of schizophrenia in this small population. A) risk B) incidence C) prevalence D) epidemiology 137. The total number of cases of a disorder in the population is called the: A) risk. B) incidence. C) prevalence. D) rate of occurrence. 138. The prevalence rate for a disorder will _____ the incidence rate. A) always be the same as B) always be higher than C) always be the same or higher than D) always be lower than 139. Describing the number of cases of intellectual disability in the children of older mothers in 2005 would be a legitimate goal for a(n) _____ study. A) case B) experimental C) epidemiological D) longitudinal Page 25 140. The finding that in the United States women have higher rates of anxiety and depression than men is MOST likely due to _____ research. A) case study B) longitudinal C) analogue D) epidemiological 141. If researchers studied Vietnam veterans for 30 years after the veterans' return from Vietnam, meeting with those veterans every two years to collect data, the study would be: A) epidemiological. B) longitudinal. C) incidental. D) experimental. 142. Which is an aspect of the experimental approach? A) the use of confounding variables B) observation of people over a period of time C) a detailed interpretive description of a subject D) the manipulation of a variable by the researcher 143. A research procedure in which a variable is manipulated and the manipulation's effect on another variable is observed is called a(n): A) case study. B) correlation. C) experiment. D) independent variable. 144. In a scientific experiment, the variable manipulated or controlled by the experimenter is called the _____ variable. A) confounding B) alternative C) dependent D) independent Page 26 145. A study included 60 people suffering from an ordinary headache. Twenty received aspirin, 20 received a sugar pill that looked like aspirin, and 20 got nothing at all. In 65 percent of the aspirin group, the headache disappeared. In the other two groups the “cure” rates were 35 and 5 percent, respectively. Other than the drug condition, the participants were treated identically. This study: A) demonstrates a double-blind design. B) is an experimental study. C) contains an important confound. D) has three dependent variables. 146. A researcher conducted an experiment to study the causes of aggression in children. Half the children ate a sugared cereal; the remaining half ate cornflakes. The researcher then recorded the number of aggressive acts displayed by the children in a one-hour play period after breakfast. In this experiment: A) sugared cereal is the dependent variable and cornflakes is the independent variable. B) breakfast is the independent variable, and the group of children is the dependent variable. C) the type of cereal is the dependent variable, and the number of aggressive responses is the independent variable. D) the type of cereal is the independent variable, and the number of aggressive responses is the dependent variable. 147. A psychologist was interested in the effect of hunger on psychological disturbances. The psychologist deprived half of a group of healthy volunteers of food for one day and fed the other half normally, then administered the MMPI-2 to all the participants. What was the independent variable? A) level of food deprivation B) the MMPI-2 C) the results on the MMPI-2 D) There is no independent variable because this is a correlational study. 148. Dr. Tim required half of a group of healthy volunteers to study a reading passage for 1 hour. The other half of the participants studied for 15 minutes. Dr. Tim then administered a test of participants' memory of details from the passage. What was the dependent variable? A) the study time B) the volunteers C) the reading passage D) the results of the memory test Page 27 149. Factors other than the independent variable may also act on the dependent variable. If these factors vary systematically with the independent variable, they are called _____. A) irrelevant variables B) confounds C) blind methods D) controlled variables 150. A research study on a group of children with autism will compare treatment delivered by parents at home to treatment delivered by teachers at school. If the study finds that the treatment delivered at school is more effective, which item is the BEST example of a confound? A) the treatment B) the children C) the diagnosis D) differences between the parents and teachers 151. The group of participants that is NOT exposed to the independent variable under investigation (in an experiment) is called the _____ group. A) control B) confound C) dependent D) experimental 152. One hundred psychiatric patients were randomly assigned to one of two groups. One group received a new drug in pill form. The other group was given identical-looking placebo pills. A panel of psychiatrists, who did not know which pill each participant received, evaluated all participants for level of agitation. What is the control group? A) the new drug B) the level of agitation C) the ones who got the placebo D) the psychiatric evaluation 153. The BEST way to select a random sample of 10 students from a class would be to: A) choose the first 10 who enter the classroom. B) choose the last 10 who leave the classroom. C) write each student's name on a piece of paper, put the papers in a pile, close eyes, and pick 10 papers. D) ask students their ethnicity, grade point average, and academic major, and then be sure the sample reflects all of these student characteristics. Page 28 154. Not all participants are the same. Researchers use _____ to reduce the possibility that preexisting differences between groups are responsible for observed differences after experimental manipulation. A) a control group B) random selection C) random assignment D) an experimental group 155. To A) placing all the participants sharing an important characteristic in the same group. B) making sure there is only one participant in each group. C) flipping a coin to determine group assignment. D) asking participants to choose the group they prefer. 156. One hundred psychiatric patients were randomly assigned to one of two groups. One group received a new drug in pill form. The other group was given identical-looking placebo pills. A panel of psychiatrists, who did not know which pill each participant received, evaluated all participants for level of agitation. In this study, how was experimenter bias reduced? A) by having experienced psychiatrists evaluate agitation B) by having researchers who don't know who got which pill C) by adding another placebo condition D) by adding a therapy group 157. Russ wants to be a good participant. He knows that his professor is an environmentalist, so his answers on the survey reflect a pro-environment position. This is an example of: A) participant bias. B) a placebo effect. C) random variation. D) experimenter bias. 158. A “fake” pill used as the control condition in a drug study is a: A) placebo. B) confound. C) random variable. D) dependent variable. accomplish random assignment, one could assign participants to groups by: Page 29 159. A researcher's expectations about a study can affect its outcome. The type of research design used specifically to address this problem is a(n): A) experiment. B) random-assignment design. C) matched control group design. D) blind design. 160. A researcher trying to eliminate the Rosenthal effect would be sure to: A) use a blind design. B) use a quasi-experimental design. C) randomly assign participants to two groups. D) randomly assign participants to three or more groups. 161. The Rosenthal effect: A) is identical to the “placebo effect.” B) can be avoided by using a blind design. C) is found primarily in natural experiments. D) is found only in correlational designs. 162. In preparation for a study of the effectiveness of an antipsychotic drug, an assistant puts all drugs into capsules of the same color and codes them. The assistant will have no part in administering the drug. Neither the subjects nor the experimenter will know who receives which drug. This is an example of a: A) single-blind design. B) double-blind design. C) triple-blind design. D) quasi-experimental design. 163. A therapist believes so strongly in her approach that she finds improvement even when none exists. Which design would prevent this problem? A) longitudinal B) double-blind C) epidemiological D) experimental 164. The function of the double-blind design is to guard against: A) participant and experimenter biases. B) imitation therapies. C) subject bias. D) the Rosenthal effect. Page 30 165. Which statement distinguishes a quasi-experimental study from a true experiment? A) The quasi-experiment does not use a control group. B) The quasi-experiment uses multiple groups for comparison. C) The quasi-experiment does not use any experimental control. D) The quasi-experiment does not randomly assign participants to groups. 166. To study some gender differences, a researcher selected a group of 10 men and 10 women and treated all participants exactly the same. Each participant was given a test of psychological function. This study is an example of a(n): A) experiment. B) analogue study. C) correlational study. D) quasi-experimental study. 167. Studies that are structured like experiments but use groups that already exist instead of randomly assigning participants to control and experimental groups are called: A) quasi-experiments. B) analogue experiments. C) correlational experiments. D) developmental experiments. 168. Which would MOST appropriately be studied using a quasi-experimental design? A) the effects of running and weight lifting on mood B) the effects of parents with schizophrenia on children's adjustment C) the effects of a parental training program on children's achievement D) the effects of a support group in helping people lose weight 169. The form of experiment used MOST often to study the psychological effects of unusual or unpredictable events is a(n) __________ experiment. A) natural B) matched-control C) analogue D) single-subject 170. Which would be LEAST appropriately studied using a natural experiment? A) the effects of premarital abstinence on later sexual functioning B) the effects of war on children in Kosovo C) the effects of a plant closing on community cohesiveness D) the effects of a particularly harsh blizzard on depression Page 31 171. Which would be the BEST design to study the effects of disasters on survivors? A) an experiment B) a quasi-experiment C) a natural experiment D) a double-blind strategy 172. Which might be an example of an analogue experiment? A) following laboratory rats in natural settings to see if they develop signs of “depression” B) having human participants live for a week in a simulated mental hospital to see how they respond C) exposing lab rats to high levels of stress and having human participants live in a simulated mental hospital would both be examples of analogue experiments D) following individuals within their natural environments and noting behavioral responses 173. Which item is an analogue study? A) studying children in their classrooms B) studying the effects of stress in nonhumans C) studying the effects of metaphors on memory D) studying the elderly in nursing homes 174. A researcher is interested in the effects of a new drug for treating anxiety and decides to study it in rats by conditioning in them the fear of a high-pitched noise and then testing the rats' reactions with and without the drug. This is an example of a(n): A) natural experiment. B) analogue experiment. C) quasi-experimental study. D) correlation. 175. Seligman's study in which he created learned helplessness in the lab is an example of a(n) _____ study. A) analogue B) case C) epidemiological D) quasi-experimental Page 32 176. In an ABAB reversal design study, a researcher is measuring level of depression with and without the addition of an exercise program. What is the first “A” in the study? A) healthy eating habits B) exercise C) no exercise D) depression 177. In an ABAB reversal design study, a researcher is measuring level of depression with and without the addition of an exercise program. What is the second “B” in the study? A) healthy eating habits B) exercise C) no exercise D) depression 178. The MOST accurate summary of what has happened in the United States in the last 50 years to protect the rights of human research participants would be that: A) there has been important progress, but concerns remain. B) recent changes in legal and ethical regulation of human research have virtually eliminated potential problems. C) the current situation is as bad as it has ever been. D) colleges and universities, but not governmental agencies, have made important progress in protecting human rights. 179. For people to decide about participating in psychological research, they must be given full knowledge of the nature of the study and their rights. This principle is called: A) risk disclosure. B) benefit analysis. C) informed consent. D) privacy. 180. The principle of informed consent assumes that: A) there is compensation. B) the benefits outweigh the risks. C) the participant can understand the explanation. D) there are no risks in the study under consideration. Page 33 181. A recent study of informed consent forms showed that: A) most research participants don't receive them. B) most research participants are insulted by them. C) many research participants don't understand them. D) research participants generally already know their rights. 1. The stated and unstated rules that a society establishes to govern proper conduct are referred to as _____. 2. The aspect of the definition of abnormality that characterizes behavior as different from what a society considers normal for a given time and place is _____. 3. Ken is so anxious that his anxiety by itself causes him to suffer. Ken's situation represents the aspect of the definition of abnormality called _____. 4. Colleen is so afraid of open spaces that she cannot leave her house to go to work and is now in danger of losing her job. This represents the aspect of the definition of abnormality called _____. 5. Heather has been feeling depressed and has begun to feel helpless and hopeless and is considering committing suicide. Killing herself represents the aspect of the definition of abnormality called _____. 6. The idea that the behaviors we label abnormal are just problems in living was proposed by _____. 7. While some clinicians refer to the person they are treating as a patient, others refer to the person as a(n) _____. 8. The early form of surgery in which a hole was made in the skull of a person, presumably to allow evil spirits to escape, was called _____. 9. The procedure that a priest or other powerful person might perform to drive evil spirits from a person is called _____. 10. _____ believed that abnormal behavior was caused by brain pathology that was a consequence of an imbalance in the four humors of the body. 11. The "father" of modern medicine who believed that illnesses had natural causes was _____. 12. During the Middle Ages, a person who believed that he or she was possessed by wolves and other animals was said to be suffering from _____. 13. The roots of today's community mental health programs can be traced back to the fifteenth century when people came to the Belgian town of _____ for psychic healing. 14. The physician who instituted a series of reforms at La Bicêtre asylum and “unchained” mental patients was _____. 15. The treatment for mental illness espoused by French physician Philippe Pinel and English Quaker William Tuke was called _____ treatment by their contemporaries. 16. An approach to treating people with mental dysfunction that emphasized humane and respectful approaches was known as _____ treatment. 17. The American advocate for laws mandating the improved treatment of people with mental disorders was _____. 18. The view that physical causes are at the root of mental illnesses is called the _____ perspective. 19. The somatogenic view of mental illness was given a boost in the 1800's when it was discovered that general paresis was caused by _____. 20. Psychotropic medications fit into the _____ model of treating mental illness. 21. According to the _____ perspective, psychological causes are at the root of mental illness. 22. The inducement of a trancelike state in which a person becomes extremely suggestible fits into the _____ model of treating mental illness. 23. Psychoanalysis' view of causes of abnormal and normal behavior fits into the _____ model. 24. The major development utilizing drugs in the treatment of the mentally ill in the second half of the twentieth century was the development of _____. 25. The reduction in the number of people housed in mental hospitals in the last 40 years can be attributed to a trend called _____. 26. Moving the focus for the care of the mentally ill out of hospitals is part of the _____ approach. 27. The largest group of professionals who provide mental health services are _____. 28. The degree that psychiatrists hold is the _____. 29. Sound research in abnormal psychology uses the _____ method. 30. Clinical researchers form general, or _____, knowledge about the nature, causes, and treatments of abnormal behavior. 31. A tentative explanation or hunch that provides a basis for study is a(n) _____. 32. Jason met with a researcher several times. He was interviewed, he took tests, and he was physically evaluated. In addition, the researcher studied his school and employment records and interviewed key people in his life. This type of study is called a(n) _____. 33. Tall people tend to have larger feet than do short people. This statement indicates a(n) _____ correlation between foot size and height. 34. The more television one watches, the lower that person's grades in school are likely to be. This statement indicates a(n) _____ correlation between hours watching TV and grades. 35. The strength or magnitude of a correlation can vary from _____ to _____. 36. If a result is statistically significant, it is unlikely to be the result of _____. 37. Studies that determine the incidence and prevalence of a disorder in a given population are called _____ studies. 38. The number of new cases of a disorder that appear during a set period of time is the _____ of that disorder. 39. If one knew that there were 500,000 total cases of schizophrenia in the United States as of now, that person would know the _____ of schizophrenia in the United States. 40. Sammi agreed to be in the study of memory, but she had not anticipated how she would feel about returning to the lab every other year for 10 years. She is involved in a(n) _____ study. 41. A study of the same individuals on many occasions over a period of time is a(n) _____ study. 42. The type of study that allows a direct determination of a causal relationship between two variables is a(n) _____. 43. Jack was doing a study on anxiety. Members of one group were asked to estimate how many years each had to live. Members of the other group were asked to estimate how many months until their next vacation. Jack then gave each of his participants a test that measured anxiety and scored them. The score on this test is an example of a(n) _____. 44. Ian made the participants in one of his groups anxious by making loud noises but kept the participants in the other group in quiet surroundings. The presence of noise in this case is an example of a(n) _____. 45. Dr. Han did his experimental manipulation and then tested his experimental group at 9 A.M. and his control group at 9 P.M. His study contains a(n) _____. 46. The nontreated or comparison group that is NOT exposed to the independent variable in an experiment is called the _____. 47. If a participant does NOT know in which condition she is being tested, she is participating in a(n) _____ design. 48. Dr. Pliny did NOT tell her subjects which group (what level of the independent variable) they were in. She didn't tell them this to guard against _____. 49. In addition to subject bias, the double-blind design guards against _____. 50. Any study that compares the responses of men and women (the “independent variable”) is BEST described as a(n) _____ design. 51. Genie was isolated from human contact and language by her (badly disturbed) parents for most of the first 13 years of her life. The effects of early language deprivation could easily be seen and studied. This is an example of a(n) _____ experiment. 52. If a researcher did a study of anxiety and used cats for subjects instead of people, she would likely be doing a(n) _____ study. Answer Key 1. norms 2. deviance 3. distress 4. dysfunction 5. danger 6. Thomas Szasz 7. client 8. trephination 9. exorcism 10. Hippocrates 11. Hippocrates 12. lycanthropy 13. Gheel 14. Philippe Pinel 15. moral 16. moral 17. Dorothea Dix 18. somatogenic 19. syphilis 20. somatogenic 21. psychogenic 22. psychogenic 23. psychogenic 24. psychotropic medications 25. deinstitutionalization 26. community mental health 27. psychiatric social workers 28. MD or DO 29. scientific 30. nomothetic 31. hypothesis 32. case study 33. positive 34. negative 35. –l.00, +1.00 36. chance 37. epidemiological 38. incidence 39. prevalence 40. longitudinal 41. longitudinal 42. experiment 43. dependent variable 44. independent variable 45. confound 46. control group 47. blind 48. subject bias, or participant bias 49. experimenter bias 50. quasi-experimental 51. natural 52. analogue