PNR 203/PNR203 Final Exam V2 | Maternal-
Newborn Nursing Q&A with Rationale | Fortis
College
1. Using Naegele’s Rule, what is the estimated date of birth (EDB) for a client whose last
menstrual period (LMP) began on February 10th?
A. October 17th
B. November 3rd
C. November 17th
D. December 10th
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: To calculate the EDB using Naegele’s rule, the nurse subtracts three months
and adds seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. Starting from February
10th, subtracting three months goes back to November 10th of the previous year, and
adding seven days results in November 17th. This method assumes a standard 28-day cycle
and is the primary tool for clinical dating.
2. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 minute after birth and finds: heart rate 110,
slow/irregular respiratory effort, some flexion of extremities, grimace in response to
suctioning, and a pink body with blue extremities. What is the APGAR score?
A. 5
B. 7
,C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The APGAR score is calculated as follows: 2 points for heart rate over 100, 1
point for slow/irregular respirations, 1 point for some flexion, 1 point for grimace, and 1
point for acrocyanosis (pink body/blue limbs). This total results in a score of 6, which
indicates the newborn may require some resuscitation or closer observation. Continuous
assessment is required at the 5-minute mark to determine if the newborn’s status is
improving.
3. Which medication is routinely administered to newborns within the first hour of life to
prevent ophthalmia neonatorum?
A. Vitamin K
B. Hepatitis B Vaccine
C. Gentamicin Ophthalmic Drops
D. Erythromycin Ophthalmic Ointment
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is a mandatory prophylactic treatment
used to prevent blindness caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis. The
medication should be applied from the inner canthus to the outer canthus of each eye. It is
, a standard of care for all newborns regardless of the method of delivery to ensure
protection against potential infections.
4. A client at 34 weeks gestation presents with sudden-onset, painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio Placentae
B. Spontaneous Abortion
C. Ectopic Pregnancy
D. Placenta Previa
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Placenta previa is characterized by the placenta covering the internal
cervical os, leading to painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester. In contrast,
abruptio placentae typically presents with dark red bleeding and significant abdominal
pain or board-like rigidity. Nurses must avoid performing a vaginal exam until the location
of the placenta is confirmed via ultrasound to prevent further hemorrhage.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding
is the most critical to report to the provider?
A. Flushing and feeling of warmth
B. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min
C. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
Newborn Nursing Q&A with Rationale | Fortis
College
1. Using Naegele’s Rule, what is the estimated date of birth (EDB) for a client whose last
menstrual period (LMP) began on February 10th?
A. October 17th
B. November 3rd
C. November 17th
D. December 10th
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: To calculate the EDB using Naegele’s rule, the nurse subtracts three months
and adds seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. Starting from February
10th, subtracting three months goes back to November 10th of the previous year, and
adding seven days results in November 17th. This method assumes a standard 28-day cycle
and is the primary tool for clinical dating.
2. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 minute after birth and finds: heart rate 110,
slow/irregular respiratory effort, some flexion of extremities, grimace in response to
suctioning, and a pink body with blue extremities. What is the APGAR score?
A. 5
B. 7
,C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The APGAR score is calculated as follows: 2 points for heart rate over 100, 1
point for slow/irregular respirations, 1 point for some flexion, 1 point for grimace, and 1
point for acrocyanosis (pink body/blue limbs). This total results in a score of 6, which
indicates the newborn may require some resuscitation or closer observation. Continuous
assessment is required at the 5-minute mark to determine if the newborn’s status is
improving.
3. Which medication is routinely administered to newborns within the first hour of life to
prevent ophthalmia neonatorum?
A. Vitamin K
B. Hepatitis B Vaccine
C. Gentamicin Ophthalmic Drops
D. Erythromycin Ophthalmic Ointment
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is a mandatory prophylactic treatment
used to prevent blindness caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis. The
medication should be applied from the inner canthus to the outer canthus of each eye. It is
, a standard of care for all newborns regardless of the method of delivery to ensure
protection against potential infections.
4. A client at 34 weeks gestation presents with sudden-onset, painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio Placentae
B. Spontaneous Abortion
C. Ectopic Pregnancy
D. Placenta Previa
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Placenta previa is characterized by the placenta covering the internal
cervical os, leading to painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester. In contrast,
abruptio placentae typically presents with dark red bleeding and significant abdominal
pain or board-like rigidity. Nurses must avoid performing a vaginal exam until the location
of the placenta is confirmed via ultrasound to prevent further hemorrhage.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding
is the most critical to report to the provider?
A. Flushing and feeling of warmth
B. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min
C. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
