Exam 1 V2: NSG 3480 / NSG3480 (Latest 2026 / 2027) Nursing Practice – Community Health | 100% Correct Questions & Answers - Galen

Exam 1 V2: NSG 3480 / NSG3480 (Latest 2026 / 2027) Nursing Practice – Community Health | 100% Correct Questions & Answers - Galen Question: What are the five steps of the nursing process? Answer Assessment Diagnosis Planning Implementation Evaluation Question: What does a diagnostic surgery accomplish? Answer Determines origin and cause of disorder. Ex- Biopsy Question: What does a curative surgery accomplish? Answer Resolves health problem by repairing or removing cause. Ex- Appendectomy Question: What does a restorative surgery accomplish? Answer Improve's patients functional ability. Ex- Joint replacement Question: What does a palliative surgery accomplish? Answer Relieves symptoms of disease process, but does not cure. Ex- Inoperable tumor; clipping nerve to relieve pain Question: What does a preventative surgery accomplish? Answer Prevents possible source of disorder before it occurs. Ex- Mole removal for a mole that may become pre-cancerous. Question: What does a cosmetic surgery accomplish? Answer Alters/enhances personal appearance. Ex- Plastic surgery Question: In which surgical setting do the patients come and go? Answer Ambulatory - same day or outpatient Question: What is the difference between elective and emergency surgery? Answer Elective - can be scheduled for another day Emergency - must happen in that moment, if not immediately Question: The preoperative phase assessment includes what information? Answer Confirms presence or absence of diseases Nursing/medical history and PE Review of systems/disorders Past surgical history Medication history Substance abuse history Allergies Emotional health Support systems Diagnostic screening needed Question: What are some factors that determine surgical risk? Answer Age Nutritional status Fluid and electrolyte status General health Use of medications Mental attitude Question: What is the nurses role with informed consent? Answer They ensure that the patient has consented before the procedure and they witness the signature. Question: Written permission must be obtained with which kinds of procedures? Answer Surgical procedure Procedure with anesthesia Invasive procedures Procedures with high risk Blood administration Question: What are the essential elements of an informed consent? Answer Competence (comprehension) Adequate disclosure Voluntary Question: Who is allowed to sign an informed consent? Answer Adults 18 years or older Parents/legal guardians Emancipated minors Question: What must happen for consent by telephone or fax? Answer 2 people listen and sign the form as witnesses. Question: What are the criteria for emergency consent? Answer Immediate threat to life Two doctors agree that this is an emergency Client is unable to consent Legally authorized person cannot be reached Question: Why is a patient considered NPO 6-8 hours before surgery? Answer To reduce the risk for aspiration. Question: What are some ways in which a patient is prepped for surgery? Answer IV access Maybe antibiotics (preventative) DVT prophylaxis CHG bath Pre-op checklist May need hair clipped Question: What are the responsibilities of the holding area nurse, circulating nurse, and scrub nurse? Answer Holding area nurse: RN before patient arrives in OR Circulating nurse: Charts on patient during surgery Scrub nurse: Handles instruments Question: How long does surgical scrubbing take? Answer 3-5 minutes Question: What does a time out during surgery confirm? Answer Correct patient identity Correct site Procedure to be done Question: What causes malignant hyperthermia? Answer Autosomal dominant trait that is an inherited hypermetabolism of skeletal muscles. Activated when skeletal muscle is exposed to succinylcholine. Question: What happens during malignant hyperthermia? Answer Increased metabolism and calcium levels leads to acidosis, high temperatures, and dysrhythmias. Question: What are some clinical manifestations of malignant hyperthermia? Answer Tachycardia, skin mottling, cyanosis, myoglobinuria, rise in end tidal carbon dioxide, and elevated temperature. Question: Moderate sedation includes the combination of what two classes of drugs? Answer A sedative (benzodiazepine) and opioid. Question: What is most important to monitor when administering opioids? Answer Respiratory status. Question: What are priority issues for patients during surgery? Answer Injury due to improper positioning Infection due to invasive procedure Impaired gas exchange due to drugs given Question: What are some ways to prevent injury perioperatively? Answer Proper positioning Prevent pressure ulcers Encourage circulation, respiration, and nerve conduction Question: Review surgical positioning Answer Supine Lithotomy Trendelenburg Lateral Jacknife Prone Question: What is included in the PACU admission report? Answer Intraoperative management -what meds were given -blood loss -tubes/drains -fluids/urine output Intraoperative course -any unexpected reactions -vital signs -lab results from during surgery An assessment in the PACU consists of what? Answer Airway/vital signs General appearance LOC/reflexes Ability to move extremities Pain Urinary output IV fluids, flow rate, site Patency of drains/catheter Dressing site/drainage Functioning of monitors What changes in vitals should be reported to the healthcare provider in PACU? BP continuously rising/falling Heart rhythm changes Hypotension paired with an increased/decreased HR Pulse pressure 20 What are common nursing diagnoses for respiratory issues? Ineffective airway clearance Ineffective breathing pattern Impaired gas exchange Risk for aspiration What are some ways that we can assess for respiratory function? Airway patency Chest symmetry Use of accessory muscles Breath sounds Respiratory rate, depth, rhythm Pulse oximetry Sputum or mucous What should we be assessing for cardiovascular function? SBP 90 or 160 HR 60 or 120 Narrowing pulse pressure Decreasing BP Irregular cardiac rhythm Variations from pre-op readings Skin color, temp, moisture, cap refill What are some nursing interventions to prevent cardiovascular complications? Intake/output Monitor lab results What are some possible nursing diagnoses for cardiovascular function? Decreased cardiac output Fluid volume deficit Altered tissue perfusion Hypovolemic shock Fluid excess What are the criteria to discharge someone from PACU? Awake VSS No excessive bleeding or drainage No respiratory depression O2 sat 90% Report given to nurse taking over What are the ambulatory surgery discharge criteria? All PACU discharge criteria No IV narcotics last 30-45mins Minimal N/V Voided Can ambulate Responsible adult to help pt DC instructions given What is the difference between dehiscence and evisceration? Dehiscence - surgical wound opens Evisceration - abdominal organs protrude or come out of wound How often do you encourage a patient to use incentive spirometry? Every hour What is innate immunity? Passed down from the mother and present at birth. First line defense against pathogens. What is acquired immunity? Developed immunity after exposure to pathogen. What is an acquired active natural immunity? Natural contact with antigen through actual infection. What is an acquired passive natural immunity? Through the placenta or colostrum transfer from mother to child. What is an acquired active artificial immunity? Immunization with antigen (vaccine). What is an acquired passive artificial immunity? Injection of serum with antibodies from one person to another person who does not have antibodies. What are some cells involved in the immune response? Mononuclear phagoctyes - Monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes Captures via phagocytosis T helper cells are classified as what two types of cells? CD4 and CD8 Natural killer cells are helpful with what kinds of cells? Cancer cells What are cytokines responsible for? Instructs cells to alter their proliferation, differentiation, secretion, or activity (messengers). The humoral immune response involves what cells and products? B cells and it produces antibodies. The cellular response involves what cells and products? T cells/macrophages and it produces sensitized T cells and cytokines. What are human leukocyte antigens? Found on the surface of most body cells and determines the tissue type of a person (unique). What is the difference between benign and malignant tumors? Benign: cells grow locally and cannot spread or metastasize. Malignant: Cells invade other tissues and metastasize to different sites. What is the CAUTION model and what does each letter stand for? It describes the 7 warning signs of cancer. C: Change in bowel/bladder habits A: Sore that does not heal U: Unusual bleeding or discharge from any body orifice T: Thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere I: Indigestion or difficulty swallowing O: Obvious change in wart or mole N: Nagging cough or hoarseness What does albumin do in the body? Prevents third-spacing and fluid retention (prevents edema). What is detected that could indicate prostate cancer? Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) What is detected that could indicate ovarian, pancreas, breast, colon, lung, or liver cancer? Cancer antigen (CA) 125 What scan is typically used to determine if cancer is malignant or benign? Positron Emission Tomography (PET) If the scan lights up red in areas that it shouldn't, it could mean that the cancer has spread. How is tumor size classified? Tx: tumor cannot be measured T0: no evidence of tumor T1, T2, T3, T4: ascending degrees of size and involvement How is lymph node involvement classified? Nx: cannot be measured N0: no abnormal lymph nodes N1, N2, N3: progressively more involvement How is distant metastasis classified? Mx: metastasis cannot be measured M0: no evidence of metastasis M1: distant metastasis present What are some main sites for metastasis? Brain, CSF, lung, liver, adrenals, bone. Does external radiation pose a risk for exposure to others after a client receives the treatment? No The side effects of external radiation are dependent on what factor? Where the radiation is targeted. How does brachytherapy work? Pt swallows isotope which emits radiation internally. Does the patient pose a radiation exposure risk to others while on brachytherapy? Yes, in their excretions (urine, stool, saliva, sweat, mucus, tears, any other body fluid). What does the term "nadir" mean? When blood counts reach their lowest points. What is the primary cause of death with cancer? Infection What are colony stimulating factors? Glycoproteins that stimulate production, maturation, regulation, and activation of cells in the hematologic system. May hasten recovery from bone marrow suppression or reestablish bone marrow function. What does the term "cancer cachexia" mean? A wasting syndrome involving anorexia and/or unintended loss of weight and appetite. What is tumor lysis syndrome? Treatment kills tumor cells, cells are released into bloodstream, theres in influx of uric acid. Hyperuricemia is a hallmark sign. Allopurinol can be used to prevent or treat. A RBC lifespan of 120 days is helpful when measuring what lab value? A1C; this is also why we can't infuse WBCs. How does the oxygen carrying capacity and oxygen saturation differ in patients with anemia? Their oxygen saturation can read 100%, even though they are suffering from hypoxia. Their oxygen carrying capacity is decreased due to their lack of viable hemoglobin. Inadequate iron intake, persistent slow blood loss, and pregnancy are all causes of what condition? Iron deficiency anemia (inadequate hemoglobin synthesis) Elevated serum binding capacity and brittle, spoon-shaped nails with longitudinal ridges are indicative of what condition? Iron-deficiency anemia Cheliosis, red shiny tongue, and an insidious development of fatigue are all indicative of what condition? Iron deficiency anemia What kind of medications should be avoided when treating someone for iron deficient anemia? Enteric-coated or sustained-release capsules; most absorption occurs in the duodenum What is the cause of pernicious anemia? - Hereditary atrophic gastritis - Absence of intrinsic factor (stimulates absorption of vitamin B-12) How is vitamin B-12 utilized in the body? - DNA synthesis - Maturation of RBC - Facilitates metabolism of folic acid Pallor, weakness, fatigue, dyspnea, tachycardia, symmetrical paresthesias, loss of vibratory sense, and loss of proprioception are all indicative of what condition? Pernicious anemia What causes shortness of breath and an activity intolerance with anemia if their oxygen saturation is 100%? Their other blood gases are imbalanced in some way. Ineffective tissue perfusion. What are some guidelines to follow when administering oral iron? Give on empty stomach, give with citrus juices, use dropper or straw, do not give with dairy products, pt will have tarry stools. How are clinical manifestations different between folic acid deficiency and cobalamin deficiency? Cobalamin deficiency has neurologic problems. What is considered the normal serum folate level? 3-16 mg/mL What is aplastic anemia? Decreased production of all 3 types of bone marrow elements. What are some ways to activate aplastic anemia? Direct injury by myelotoxins, causing direct injury to the bone marrow, exposure to environmental hazards (benzene, insecticides, radiation), and certain infections (hepatitis, miliary TB, Epstein-Barr virus).