Security Forces Block 1 Test V 1– United States Air Force (USAF) Security Forces (3P0X1) Assessment – – 2026/2027 Edition Verified Questions and Answers

Security Forces Block 1 Test V 1– United States Air Force (USAF) Security Forces (3P0X1) Assessment – – 2026/2027 Edition Verified Questions and Answers What job are "Security Police members doing specifically when referred to as "Security Police"? Law Enforcement duties What job are "Security Forces" members doing when referred to as "Security Forces"? Aerospace Systems Security duties What job are "Defenders" doing when referred to as "Defenders"? Air Base Defense duties Who takes a badge and beret from an SF member when they are relieved of duty? Chief of SF (Commander) Where did the SF Flash originate from? 1041st Security Police unit. They were trained by Rangers What is integrity? (As defined for the Security Forces career field? A rigid code or standard of values that avoids being put in a position of compromise What is the SF pledge? I am a Security Forces member, I hold allegiance to my country, devotion to duty and personal integrity above all. I will wear my badge of authority with dignity and restraint, and will promote by example high standards of conduct, appearance, courtesy, and performance. I seek no favor because of my position. I perform my duties in a firm, courteous, and impartial manner, irrespective of a person's color, race, religion, national orgin or sex. I strive to merit the respect of my fellow Airmen and all with whom I come in contact. What are the 12 key elements of the SF code of conduct? 1. Exercising authority 2. Fulfilling the mission 3. Personal appearance 4. Personal attitudes (no bias) 5. Assistance to others 6. Attention to duty 7. Not seeking favors 8. Punishment of offenders 9. Apprehension of suspects 10. Dealing with intoxicated personnel 11. Off duty conduct 12. Observance of the code What is the AFSC career identifier letter for CATM? B What is the AFSC career identifier letter for K9? A What are the characteristics of a 9-level troop? -Superintendant -SMSgt -3P091 What is ALS? Airmen go as a SrA or SSgt Select, and have to successfully complete ALS to sew on E-5. Have to have at least 48 months of federal service What is SNCOA? In residence, completed before the rank of CMSgt What is SF's 1st General Order? I will take charge of my post and protect personnel and property for which I am responsible until properly relieved What is SFs 2nd General Order? I will report all violations of orders I am entrusted to enforce and will call my supervisor in any case not covered by instruction What is SFs 3rd General Order? I will sound the alarm in case of disorder or emergency What is the SF Mission Statement? Protect, defend and fight to enable AF, joint, and coalition missions What are the 6 core capabilities? 1. Area Security Operations 2. Base Security Operations 3. Law and Order Operations 4. Combat Arms Operations 5. MWD Operations 6. Nuclear Security What are the 9 desired effects of the core capabilities/ID? 1. Anticipate 2. Deter 3. Detect 4. Assess 5. Warn 6. Defeat 7. Delay 8. Defend 9. Recover What are the goals/end states for SF? 1. Organization 2. Training 3. Equipment 4. People What AFI governs Standardization/Evaluation? AFI 36-26-46 What are the responsibilities of the DFC in regards to Stan/Eval? 1. Establish a Stan/Eval program 2. Monitor/evaluate effectiveness of SF functions 3. Coordinates staff inspection items What are the SFM (Chief) responsibilities in regards to Stan/Eval? 1. Manages program 2. Provides recommendation/feedback to DFC 3. Reviews, validates, and endorses all reports What is a "critical position" and how long is it valid? Duties critical to mission accomplishment (Flight Chief, Flight Commander, Ops Officer, Etc.). Valid for 12 months What is a "noncritical position" and how long is it valid? May work along without being supervised (working the gate, etc). Valid for 18 months for active, 24 months for IMA What 3 types of evaluations are there? (in regards to Stan/Eval) 1. Verbal 2. Performance 3. Written What is the goal for officer assignment system? AF wants you to be able to have the freedom to plan as well as balance with SF needs Who implements training and manages CDCs? UTM (Unit Training Manager) Who coordinates training? Stan/Eval and S-3 Who approves the UTP (Unit Training Plan)? DFC (Defense Force Commander) How long does a member have to complete Phase II training? 60 days What are other uses for training documentation? 1. AARs 2. Lessons learned 3. Legal proceedings What Air Force Form is the job qualification standard documented on? (QC) AF 797 Is TEEOS used for one person or for a group? Group, collectively What is ETE? Evaluate, train, evaluate. Evaluate the level our Airmen are at What AFI documents the training program? AFI 36-2201 How does one become a leader led trainer? AF trainers course, and be a SME in the subject What is the most hazardous noise hazard? Occasional, loud impact What is the amount of dBs in an 8 hour shift that an Airman can be exposed to without hearing issues? 8 hr shift/90 dB What is the most common blood bourne illness? Hep C How are blood bourne pathogens spread? Open sores, cuts, abrasion, mucous membrane. Not just by touching What are the 2 types of PPE SF deems necessary when dealing with blood bourne pathogens? Gloves and eye pro What does S1 do? Commander's support staff What does S2 do? Investigations/intelligence What does S3 do? Ops, training, flights, K9 What does S4 do? Logistics, armory, supply, vehicles, CATM, mobility What does S5 do? Plans, programs, physical security, RABs, reports, analysis, police services, resource protection When did SF begin? 1947 What shaped airfield defense? North Africa What was the first Security Police Squadron? 1041st What is a CFETP? Identifies life cycle and training requirements, training support requirements, and identifies minimum core test for SF. Career Field Education and Training Plan What are the characteristics of a 3-level troop? Apprentice, right when they graduate tech school 3P031 What are the characteristics of a 5-level troop? Journeyman, have to have finished CDCs lvl 5, complete 12 months OJT (if retrained have 9 months), complete all 5 level core tasks. 3P051 What are the characteristics of a 7-level troop? Craftsman, 7 skill level CDCs complete, 12 months OJT (6 months for retraining) min rank is SSgt. 3P071 Fundamental of Defense-What must an Airman do to understand the enemy? Defender must familiarize themselves with the capabilities and limitations of enemy forces in respect to their weaponry, tactics, and equiptment What are the 5 Operative Concepts in regards to integrated defense? 1. Aggressive Defense (within the Base Security Zone) seize, hold, initiate or detect before attack begins, balance of sensors/patrols 2. Defense in Depth (allows for absorbing) 3. All around defense (360/180) 4. Integrated defense (ensure no gaps) 5. Defense organized around key terrain MWDs- What do they do on the Law Enforcement side? Seek, detect, guard, bite and hold suspects on command. They deter attacks and defend their handlers. Also used for crowd control and suppression MWD- What do they do on the Drug Suppression side? Support AF goal of drug free environment. Capability to detect illegal drugs which deters drug use and possession MWDs- What do they do on the Explosive Detection side? Antiterrorism ops. Detect unexploded ordinance Can you use a MWD to confirm or clear a suspicious package? No What are the conditions of a MWD team supporting outside agencies? Allowed as long as it doesn't impact unit readiness or a cost to the government What does AFPD stand for? Air Force Policy Directive What does AFDD stand for? Air Force Doctrine Directive What is integrated defense? AF Installation Commander's force to prepare for and defend critical assets within assigned areas Why do we have DAF officers? Post 9/11 requirements, backfill for increased deployments/ops tempo, meet heightened home station security requirements How many radio frequencies at a minimum need to be established? 2 What is the chain of command for a joint unit? President-Sec Def-Combatant Commander-Joint task force CC or component Commander FPCONS are in response to what 4 DoD threat levels? Low, Moderate, Significant, and High This FPCON must be maintained indefinitely Alpha Who oversees AF Corrections worldwide? HQ AF SF Center What AFI governs corrections? AFI 31-205 At each base, who is responsible of monitoring, inspecting, and maintaining the corrections program? DFC/Instillation CC What requirements does an airman need to be able to be a correctional officer? E-4 or higher with 5 skill lvl. Need custody, management, control and correctional treatment training What are the 5 levels of inmate classification? Maximum, Medium-min, medium-out, minimum, community How is a non lethal weapon defined? Weapons that are explicitly designed and primarily employed to incapacitate personnel How many non lethal weapons does the Air Force require you to carry when performing LE duties? One What are the 3 non lethal weapons that the Air Force uses? ASP Baton, TASER, OC Spray What is the Integrated Defense Security System? Refers to the systems designed to protect all PL resources to prevent damage, theft and destructions or unauthorized access to the assigned resource What is Security System Project Description? Describe the physical security capability that unit is trying to achieve and prioritize needs At a minimum, what needs to be part of the SSPD? Scope, threat, assessment summary, reference docs, special considerations, point of contact, plan for maintenance and training, instillation support What are some of the components of an IDS (Integrated Defense System)? Sensors, alarms, exterior/interior sensors, etc What are the 5 steps to selecting IDS equipment? Step 1: Capabilities/limitations of device Step 2: Facility and design Step 3: Weather that could affect sensors, air and ground traffic Step 4: How it affects day to day ops Step 5: Integration into overall defense plan What are the 4 steps of making an Integrated Defense Risk Management Program (IDRMP)? 1. Risk Assessment 2. Risk tolerance decision 3. COA determination 4. Decision/implementation How do you determine a risk level? Critical asset x threat rate x vulnerabilities=Risk level Who decides what COA is implemented for an IDRMP? Installation Commander What eye is the flash aligned over? Left Which AF Core Value is "moral compass, basis for trust for all airmen and covers a wide range of moral traits? Integrity First As a result of ___________________ the SF career field can be traced back to the transfer of MP units from the Army to the Air Force? National Security Act of 1947 Who is the POC for all SF Support Services contract issues (DAF)? HQ SF Functional Director Who manages the unit Stan/Eval program? Security Forces Manager (Chief) Who reviews, validates and endorses inspection reports? Security Forces Manager (Chief) What agency is responsible for implementing and overseeing the worldwide AF Correctional System? HQ AF SF Center Correction Divison What 3 things does the UTM implement and manage? Training Programs, policies, and procedures, as directed by higher HQ and base training T/F: Training records can be utilized for promotion testing? False What is the intent of ID? Commander's force to prepare for and defend critical assets within assigned areas Where is the SF radio priority list published? IDP (Integrated Defense Plan) Commanders must be involved in the timely assessment of what 3 things in regards to IDRMP? Risk exposure, risk estimate, operational planning