Fall Semester 2026–2027 ATI230 – ATI Maternal-Newborn
Proctored Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and Answers |
ATI230 Maternal-Newborn Comprehensive Study Guide,
Practice Exam, Exam Prep Test Bank, Antepartum Care,
Intrapartum Nursing, Labor & Delivery, Postpartum Care,
Newborn Assessment, Neonatal Nursing, High-Risk
Pregnancy, Obstetric Emergencies, Breastfeeding, Clinical
Judgment, Next Generation NCLEX (NGN), Detailed
Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and
reports frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse provide to alleviate these symptoms?
A. Drink a glass of water with each meal to promote digestion.
B. Consume high-fat foods to increase caloric intake.
C. Eat dry crackers or toast before rising from bed in the morning.
D. Lie flat immediately after eating to reduce gastric motility.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Eat dry crackers or toast before rising from bed in the
morning.
Rationale: Eating dry, bland carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed helps
stabilize blood glucose levels and settle the stomach, reducing nausea associated with
early pregnancy. Avoiding fluids with meals and high-fat foods (which delay gastric
emptying) is also recommended, but the most effective immediate intervention is the
pre-rising snack.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hr old. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
B. A respiratory rate of 48 breaths/min
C. A single palpable umbilical artery
D. Caput succedaneum
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A single palpable umbilical artery
Rationale: The normal umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein. A single
umbilical artery is associated with congenital renal anomalies and other birth defects,
and this finding should be reported for further evaluation. Acrocyanosis, a respiratory
rate of 40-60 breaths/min, and caput succedaneum are common, benign findings in a
newborn.
Question 3: A nurse is providing teaching about breastfeeding to a client who
is postpartum. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
,A. "I should apply a lanolin-based cream to my nipples after each feeding."
B. "I should feed my baby on a strict 4-hour schedule to ensure adequate intake."
C. "I should wait until my breasts feel full before I start to feed the baby."
D. "I should unlatch my baby by breaking the suction with my finger."
CORRECT ANSWER: D. "I should unlatch my baby by breaking the suction
with my finger."
Rationale: Inserting a finger into the corner of the infant's mouth to break suction
prevents trauma and soreness to the nipple when removing the baby from the breast.
Nipple creams may help, but expressed breast milk is usually sufficient. Feeding should
be on demand, not strictly scheduled, and waiting for engorgement can make latching
difficult.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate
for severe preeclampsia. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium
toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
C. Absent patellar reflexes
D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Absent patellar reflexes
Rationale: Absent deep tendon reflexes (patellar) is a classic and critical sign of
magnesium toxicity, often preceding respiratory depression. A respiratory rate below 12-
14 breaths/min, urine output below 30 mL/hr, and hypotension are other signs of
toxicity. The other options represent acceptable vital signs for a client on this
medication.
Question 5: A nurse is performing a fundal assessment on a client who is 12 hr
postpartum. The nurse finds the fundus to be boggy and displaced to the right
of the midline. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxytocin as prescribed.
B. Reassess the fundus in 15 minutes.
C. Assist the client to void.
D. Massage the fundus vigorously.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Assist the client to void.
Rationale: A boggy, displaced (usually to the right) uterus is a classic sign of a full
bladder, which prevents the uterus from contracting effectively. The nurse's first action
should be to have the client void to empty the bladder, which usually allows the uterus
,to shift back to the midline and become firm. Massaging the fundus and administering
oxytocin are subsequent interventions if the uterus remains boggy.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client in active labor who has a history of a
previous cesarean birth. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the
following complications?
A. Placenta previa
B. Uterine rupture
C. Cord prolapse
D. Amniotic fluid embolism
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Uterine rupture
Rationale: A uterine scar from a previous cesarean section weakens the uterine wall and
increases the risk of uterine rupture, especially during labor. The nurse must monitor for
signs like sudden abdominal pain, fetal bradycardia, and changes in uterine activity.
Question 7: A nurse is assessing a client at 38 weeks of gestation who has
preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a
sign of impending eclampsia?
A. Epigastric pain and a severe headache
B. A blood pressure of 142/90 mm Hg
C. 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
D. A platelet count of 220,000/mm³
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Epigastric pain and a severe headache
Rationale: Epigastric pain (often related to liver distension/ischemia) and severe
headache are neurological and hepatic warning signs that indicate severe preeclampsia
and an increased risk of seizure. These are more specific indicators of impending
eclampsia than generalized edema or a borderline blood pressure reading.
Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation about
nutrition. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
A. "I will increase my daily intake of folic acid to 600 mcg."
B. "I will consume at least 1,000 mg of calcium daily."
C. "I will avoid seafood to prevent exposure to mercury."
D. "I will eat about 300 extra calories per day during my second trimester."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will avoid seafood to prevent exposure to mercury."
, Rationale: It is not necessary to avoid all seafood. Pregnant clients should limit intake of
high-mercury fish (like shark, swordfish, king mackerel, and tilefish) but can safely
consume 8-12 ounces per week of low-mercury seafood (like salmon, shrimp, and
catfish), which provides beneficial omega-3 fatty acids.
Question 9: A nurse is assessing a newborn for signs of hypoglycemia. Which
of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Hypertonia and jitteriness
B. A high-pitched cry and lethargy
C. Ruddy skin color and excessive weight gain
D. Increased appetite and tachypnea
CORRECT ANSWER: B. A high-pitched cry and lethargy
Rationale: Hypoglycemia in a newborn presents with signs of central nervous system
irritability followed by depression, such as a high-pitched cry, jitteriness, lethargy, poor
feeding, and hypothermia. Hypertonia and ruddy skin are not classic signs. Jitteriness is
common, but it is accompanied by lethargy in hypoglycemia.
Question 10: A nurse is preparing to administer Rho(D) immune globulin to a
client who is postpartum. The nurse understands that this medication is
indicated to prevent which of the following complications?
A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn in a future pregnancy
B. Thrombocytopenia in the current fetus
C. Postpartum hemorrhage in the current pregnancy
D. Anemia in the newborn
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn in a future
pregnancy
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers who have given birth to an
Rh-positive infant. It prevents the mother from developing anti-Rh antibodies, which
could cross the placenta in a subsequent pregnancy and cause hemolytic disease of the
newborn.
Question 11: A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hr postpartum. The client
reports a "gush" of blood. The nurse notes a moderate amount of lochia rubra
on the peripad. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Assess the fundus for firmness and position.
B. Notify the provider immediately.
C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
D. Administer the prescribed methylergonovine.
Proctored Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and Answers |
ATI230 Maternal-Newborn Comprehensive Study Guide,
Practice Exam, Exam Prep Test Bank, Antepartum Care,
Intrapartum Nursing, Labor & Delivery, Postpartum Care,
Newborn Assessment, Neonatal Nursing, High-Risk
Pregnancy, Obstetric Emergencies, Breastfeeding, Clinical
Judgment, Next Generation NCLEX (NGN), Detailed
Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and
reports frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse provide to alleviate these symptoms?
A. Drink a glass of water with each meal to promote digestion.
B. Consume high-fat foods to increase caloric intake.
C. Eat dry crackers or toast before rising from bed in the morning.
D. Lie flat immediately after eating to reduce gastric motility.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Eat dry crackers or toast before rising from bed in the
morning.
Rationale: Eating dry, bland carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed helps
stabilize blood glucose levels and settle the stomach, reducing nausea associated with
early pregnancy. Avoiding fluids with meals and high-fat foods (which delay gastric
emptying) is also recommended, but the most effective immediate intervention is the
pre-rising snack.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hr old. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
B. A respiratory rate of 48 breaths/min
C. A single palpable umbilical artery
D. Caput succedaneum
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A single palpable umbilical artery
Rationale: The normal umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein. A single
umbilical artery is associated with congenital renal anomalies and other birth defects,
and this finding should be reported for further evaluation. Acrocyanosis, a respiratory
rate of 40-60 breaths/min, and caput succedaneum are common, benign findings in a
newborn.
Question 3: A nurse is providing teaching about breastfeeding to a client who
is postpartum. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
,A. "I should apply a lanolin-based cream to my nipples after each feeding."
B. "I should feed my baby on a strict 4-hour schedule to ensure adequate intake."
C. "I should wait until my breasts feel full before I start to feed the baby."
D. "I should unlatch my baby by breaking the suction with my finger."
CORRECT ANSWER: D. "I should unlatch my baby by breaking the suction
with my finger."
Rationale: Inserting a finger into the corner of the infant's mouth to break suction
prevents trauma and soreness to the nipple when removing the baby from the breast.
Nipple creams may help, but expressed breast milk is usually sufficient. Feeding should
be on demand, not strictly scheduled, and waiting for engorgement can make latching
difficult.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate
for severe preeclampsia. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium
toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
C. Absent patellar reflexes
D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Absent patellar reflexes
Rationale: Absent deep tendon reflexes (patellar) is a classic and critical sign of
magnesium toxicity, often preceding respiratory depression. A respiratory rate below 12-
14 breaths/min, urine output below 30 mL/hr, and hypotension are other signs of
toxicity. The other options represent acceptable vital signs for a client on this
medication.
Question 5: A nurse is performing a fundal assessment on a client who is 12 hr
postpartum. The nurse finds the fundus to be boggy and displaced to the right
of the midline. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxytocin as prescribed.
B. Reassess the fundus in 15 minutes.
C. Assist the client to void.
D. Massage the fundus vigorously.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Assist the client to void.
Rationale: A boggy, displaced (usually to the right) uterus is a classic sign of a full
bladder, which prevents the uterus from contracting effectively. The nurse's first action
should be to have the client void to empty the bladder, which usually allows the uterus
,to shift back to the midline and become firm. Massaging the fundus and administering
oxytocin are subsequent interventions if the uterus remains boggy.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client in active labor who has a history of a
previous cesarean birth. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the
following complications?
A. Placenta previa
B. Uterine rupture
C. Cord prolapse
D. Amniotic fluid embolism
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Uterine rupture
Rationale: A uterine scar from a previous cesarean section weakens the uterine wall and
increases the risk of uterine rupture, especially during labor. The nurse must monitor for
signs like sudden abdominal pain, fetal bradycardia, and changes in uterine activity.
Question 7: A nurse is assessing a client at 38 weeks of gestation who has
preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a
sign of impending eclampsia?
A. Epigastric pain and a severe headache
B. A blood pressure of 142/90 mm Hg
C. 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
D. A platelet count of 220,000/mm³
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Epigastric pain and a severe headache
Rationale: Epigastric pain (often related to liver distension/ischemia) and severe
headache are neurological and hepatic warning signs that indicate severe preeclampsia
and an increased risk of seizure. These are more specific indicators of impending
eclampsia than generalized edema or a borderline blood pressure reading.
Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation about
nutrition. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
A. "I will increase my daily intake of folic acid to 600 mcg."
B. "I will consume at least 1,000 mg of calcium daily."
C. "I will avoid seafood to prevent exposure to mercury."
D. "I will eat about 300 extra calories per day during my second trimester."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will avoid seafood to prevent exposure to mercury."
, Rationale: It is not necessary to avoid all seafood. Pregnant clients should limit intake of
high-mercury fish (like shark, swordfish, king mackerel, and tilefish) but can safely
consume 8-12 ounces per week of low-mercury seafood (like salmon, shrimp, and
catfish), which provides beneficial omega-3 fatty acids.
Question 9: A nurse is assessing a newborn for signs of hypoglycemia. Which
of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Hypertonia and jitteriness
B. A high-pitched cry and lethargy
C. Ruddy skin color and excessive weight gain
D. Increased appetite and tachypnea
CORRECT ANSWER: B. A high-pitched cry and lethargy
Rationale: Hypoglycemia in a newborn presents with signs of central nervous system
irritability followed by depression, such as a high-pitched cry, jitteriness, lethargy, poor
feeding, and hypothermia. Hypertonia and ruddy skin are not classic signs. Jitteriness is
common, but it is accompanied by lethargy in hypoglycemia.
Question 10: A nurse is preparing to administer Rho(D) immune globulin to a
client who is postpartum. The nurse understands that this medication is
indicated to prevent which of the following complications?
A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn in a future pregnancy
B. Thrombocytopenia in the current fetus
C. Postpartum hemorrhage in the current pregnancy
D. Anemia in the newborn
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn in a future
pregnancy
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers who have given birth to an
Rh-positive infant. It prevents the mother from developing anti-Rh antibodies, which
could cross the placenta in a subsequent pregnancy and cause hemolytic disease of the
newborn.
Question 11: A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hr postpartum. The client
reports a "gush" of blood. The nurse notes a moderate amount of lochia rubra
on the peripad. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Assess the fundus for firmness and position.
B. Notify the provider immediately.
C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
D. Administer the prescribed methylergonovine.
