HESI - Fundamentals practice Exam Newest 2026
Questions and Correct Detailed Answers Already
Graded A+
The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe
anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest
tenth.)
A. 0.2 mL
B. 0.8 mL
C. 1.25 mL
D. 2.0 mL - CORRECT ANSWER-B
Rationale: (1 mL × 4 mg)/5 mg = 0.8 mL
When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, which action by
the nurse best ensures client safety?
A. Securely grasp the client's arm and leg.
B. Put bed rails up on the side of bed opposite from the nurse.
C. Correctly position and use a turn sheet.
D. Lower the head of the client's bed slowly. - CORRECT ANSWER-B
,Rationale: Because the nurse can only stand on one side of the bed, bed rails
should be up on the opposite side to ensure that the client does not fall out of
bed. Option A can cause client injury to the skin or joint. Options C and D are
useful techniques while turning a client but have less priority in terms of safety
than use of the bed rails.
The nurse identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-thickness
(second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What intervention has
the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
A. Administration of plasma expanders
B. Use of careful handwashing technique
C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns - CORRECT ANSWER-B
Rationale: Careful handwashing technique is the single most effective
intervention for the prevention of contamination to all clients. Option A reverses
the hypovolemia that initially accompanies burn trauma but is not related to
decreasing the proliferation of infective organisms. Options C and D are
recommended by various burn centers as possible ways to reduce the chance of
infection. Option B is a proven technique to prevent infection.
,The nurse is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served
by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most
reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?
A. Low serum albumin level
B. Low serum transferrin level
C. High hemoglobin level
D. High cholesterol level - CORRECT ANSWER-A
Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency is required to cause significantly lowered
serum albumin levels. Albumin is made by the liver only when adequate amounts
of amino acids (from protein breakdown) are available. Albumin has a long half-
life, so acute protein loss does not significantly alter serum levels. Option B is a
serum protein with a half-life of only 8 to 10 days, so it will drop with an acute
protein deficiency. Options C and D are not clinical measures of protein
malnutrition.
In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative
permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical
procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Witness the client's signature to the permit.
B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has
questions about the surgery.
, D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the
anesthesia is administered. - CORRECT ANSWER-C
Rationale: The surgeon should be informed immediately that the permit is not
signed. It is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and
obtain the client's signature on the permit. Although the nurse can witness an
operative permit, the procedure must first be explained by the health care
provider or surgeon, including answering the client's questions. The client's
questions should be addressed before the permit is signed.
The nurse is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a client's
history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during surgery?
A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months - CORRECT ANSWER-B
Rationale:
Anticoagulants increase the risk for bleeding during surgery, which can pose a
threat for the development of surgical complications. The health care provider
should be informed that the client is taking these drugs. Although clients who
take birth control pills may be more susceptible to the development of thrombi,
such problems usually occur postoperatively. A client with option C or D is at less
of a surgical risk than with option B.
Questions and Correct Detailed Answers Already
Graded A+
The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe
anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest
tenth.)
A. 0.2 mL
B. 0.8 mL
C. 1.25 mL
D. 2.0 mL - CORRECT ANSWER-B
Rationale: (1 mL × 4 mg)/5 mg = 0.8 mL
When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, which action by
the nurse best ensures client safety?
A. Securely grasp the client's arm and leg.
B. Put bed rails up on the side of bed opposite from the nurse.
C. Correctly position and use a turn sheet.
D. Lower the head of the client's bed slowly. - CORRECT ANSWER-B
,Rationale: Because the nurse can only stand on one side of the bed, bed rails
should be up on the opposite side to ensure that the client does not fall out of
bed. Option A can cause client injury to the skin or joint. Options C and D are
useful techniques while turning a client but have less priority in terms of safety
than use of the bed rails.
The nurse identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-thickness
(second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What intervention has
the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
A. Administration of plasma expanders
B. Use of careful handwashing technique
C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns - CORRECT ANSWER-B
Rationale: Careful handwashing technique is the single most effective
intervention for the prevention of contamination to all clients. Option A reverses
the hypovolemia that initially accompanies burn trauma but is not related to
decreasing the proliferation of infective organisms. Options C and D are
recommended by various burn centers as possible ways to reduce the chance of
infection. Option B is a proven technique to prevent infection.
,The nurse is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served
by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most
reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?
A. Low serum albumin level
B. Low serum transferrin level
C. High hemoglobin level
D. High cholesterol level - CORRECT ANSWER-A
Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency is required to cause significantly lowered
serum albumin levels. Albumin is made by the liver only when adequate amounts
of amino acids (from protein breakdown) are available. Albumin has a long half-
life, so acute protein loss does not significantly alter serum levels. Option B is a
serum protein with a half-life of only 8 to 10 days, so it will drop with an acute
protein deficiency. Options C and D are not clinical measures of protein
malnutrition.
In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative
permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical
procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Witness the client's signature to the permit.
B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has
questions about the surgery.
, D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the
anesthesia is administered. - CORRECT ANSWER-C
Rationale: The surgeon should be informed immediately that the permit is not
signed. It is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and
obtain the client's signature on the permit. Although the nurse can witness an
operative permit, the procedure must first be explained by the health care
provider or surgeon, including answering the client's questions. The client's
questions should be addressed before the permit is signed.
The nurse is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a client's
history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during surgery?
A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months - CORRECT ANSWER-B
Rationale:
Anticoagulants increase the risk for bleeding during surgery, which can pose a
threat for the development of surgical complications. The health care provider
should be informed that the client is taking these drugs. Although clients who
take birth control pills may be more susceptible to the development of thrombi,
such problems usually occur postoperatively. A client with option C or D is at less
of a surgical risk than with option B.
