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Latest Update 2026 | NR602 Final Exam Questions & 100% Correct Answers | Graded A+ | Verified Solutions | Assured Pass

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Ace your NR602 Advanced Practice Nursing final exam with this complete and verified resource for 2025–2026. This package includes all exam questions with 100% correct answers, fully graded and organized for optimal study. Each solution is verified to ensure accuracy, making it an essential tool for achieving top scores and confidence in your exam preparation. Included: Full NR602 final exam questions Correct answers with verified rationales Graded A+ solutions Updated for 2025–2026 exams Ideal for comprehensive review and guaranteed exam readiness This complete NR602 resource is perfect for Advanced Practice Nursing students seeking exam success and assured high performance.

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NR602 FINAL EXAM ALL QUESTIONS AND 100%
CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+|| LATEST
AND COMPLETE VERSION 2025-2026 WITH VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS|| ASSURED PASS!!!
• A sexually active 18-years old presents with postcoital spotting, dysuria and a yellow
discharge. On exam you find her cervix is erythematous and bleeds with contact. The
most likely diagnosis is
a. Cervical cancer
b. Chlamydia
c. Primary syphilis
d. Tampon injury
• One of the leading causes of female infertility, Stein-Leventhal syndrome is
a. Pelvic inflammatory disease
b. Polycystic ovary disease
c. Multiple sex partners
d. Ectopic pregnancy syndrome
• HIV test is indicated for a (n)
a. 18-year-old female whose sex partner has a history of genital warts
b. 24-year-old female with current genital warts as adjunct to routine pap test
c. 30-year-old female with no history of genital warts as adjunct to routine pap
test
d. 67-year old female with new sex partner in past year who has history of genital
warts
• Which of the following contraceptive methods would be best for a woman with sickle
cell anemia?
a. Combination oral contraceptives
b. Transdermal contraceptive patch
c. Progestin-only contraceptives
d. Female condom

,2|Page




• A 24-year old female presents to your office with a request for combination contraceptives.
Her current medications include a bronchodilator for asthma. Management for this client should
include advising her that:

Combination oral contraceptives are not recommended for women with asthma
Combination oral contraceptives may potentiate the action of her bronchodilator
She should use a backup method if using the bronchodilator several days in a row
Progestin-only contraceptive injections may reduce her asthma attacks
• The CDC recommendation for follow-up of a female treated for PID with a recommended
outpatient regimen is:

Advise patient to return if pain and/or fever persists more than five days
Re-examine patient within 72 hours after initiation of treatment
Retest for chlamydia and gonorrhea in two weeks
See patient in one week for second dose ceftriaxone IM

• A 16-year old woman has not yet begun menstruating but does have secondary sexual
characteristics. She is best described as having:

Asherman’s syndrome
Oligomenorrhea
Primary amenorrhea
Secondary amenorrhea
• The glands located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice are the:

Bartholin’s glands
Bulbar glands
Natorian glands
Skene’s glands
• Typical characteristics of vulvodynia include:
Constant vulvar burning and discomfort
Inflammation of the vestibular glands
Thickened plaques on the vulva
Valvovaginal edema and erythema

• The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma is:

, Infiltrating ductal

Medullary
Lobular
Infiltrating papillary

• A dancer from an adult club down the street comes in for a renewal of her birth control pill
prescription. She says everything is fine. On exam, you find grayish-white vaginal discharge,
greenish cervical discharge, and cervical motion tenderness. All of the following are differential
diagnoses except?

Gonorrhea
Interstitial cystitis
Bacterial vaginosis
Chlamydia


• A Patient taking metronidazole and cimetidine at the same time is at risk for:
a. Bothersome side effect from the metronidazole
b. Decreased effectiveness of cimetidine
c. Renal impairment
d. Severe disulfiram type reaction
• A 58-year old woman complain of severe vulvular pruritis. On examination of the vulva,
you note thinning of the epidermis and loss of pigmentation, as well as maculopapular
lesions. You suspect the diagnosis may be
a. Lichen sclerosus
b. Local allergic reaction

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