10TH EDITION
• AUTHOR(S)SHEILA L. VIDEBECK
TEST BANK
UNIT 1 — CURRENT THEORIES & PRACTICE
1.
Reference
Ch. 1 — Foundations — Mental Health vs. Mental Illness
Stem
A 28-year-old male presents to the campus health clinic
describing intermittent sleep, feeling "down," and trouble
concentrating for 3 weeks after failing midterms. He reports no
functional decline at work and continues daily activities, but
expresses worry about future performance. As the psychiatric
,nurse, how should you best conceptualize this presentation
when planning initial care?
A. Diagnose a major depressive disorder and initiate referral for
antidepressant therapy.
B. View symptoms along a mental health–mental illness
continuum and perform focused assessment for severity and
functional impact.
C. Assume symptoms are part of normal adolescent
development and provide reassurance only.
D. Recommend immediate inpatient psychiatric admission due
to risk of deterioration.
Correct Answer
B
Rationales
Correct (B): Videbeck emphasizes conceptualizing mood and
stress reactions on a continuum; clinical judgment requires
assessing severity, duration, and functional impairment before
diagnosis or treatment. A focused assessment clarifies whether
symptoms represent transient stress response versus a
psychiatric disorder. This approach aligns with safe, scope-
appropriate nursing assessment.
Incorrect (A): Premature diagnosis and pharmacologic referral
without assessing severity, duration, suicidal risk, and functional
impairment is inappropriate.
Incorrect (C): Minimizing symptoms risks missing a developing
disorder; reassurance alone may delay needed care.
,Incorrect (D): Inpatient admission is excessive given current
report of preserved functioning and no evidence of imminent
danger.
Teaching Point
Assess severity, duration, and functional impact on a continuum
before diagnosing or initiating treatment.
Citation
Videbeck, S. L. (2025). Psychiatric–Mental Health Nursing (10th
ed.). Ch. 1.
2.
Reference
Ch. 1 — Foundations — Biopsychosocial Model & Nursing
Practice
Stem
A 45-year-old woman with chronic anxiety reports worsening
palpitations and stomach upset after a job loss. Her physical
exam and basic labs are unremarkable. As the psychiatric nurse,
which initial nursing action best reflects a biopsychosocial
approach?
A. Provide only pharmacologic education about anxiolytics.
B. Explore psychological stressors, social supports, and
coordinate medical follow-up while teaching coping strategies.
C. Focus on dismissing physical complaints as purely
psychosomatic.
, D. Schedule weekly group therapy without addressing
immediate social needs.
Correct Answer
B
Rationales
Correct (B): The biopsychosocial model guides comprehensive
nursing assessment addressing biological symptoms,
psychological reactions, and social determinants; coordinating
care and teaching coping is within nursing scope.
Incorrect (A): Limiting care to pharmacologic education ignores
psychosocial contributors and nursing-led interventions.
Incorrect (C): Dismissing physical complaints is non-therapeutic
and risks missing comorbid medical issues.
Incorrect (D): Group therapy may help long term but fails to
address immediate social stressors and individualized coping
needs.
Teaching Point
Use the biopsychosocial model to assess and coordinate
biological, psychological, and social needs.
Citation
Videbeck, S. L. (2025). Psychiatric–Mental Health Nursing (10th
ed.). Ch. 1.
3.