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NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm
EXAM Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified
| Updated (Actual Exam) 2026
Question 1:
A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an example of:
A) Atrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Metaplasia
Answer: C) Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, often in response to increased workload, such
as the left ventricle working harder against high blood pressure. Atrophy is a decrease in cell
size, hyperplasia is increased cell number, and metaplasia is a change in cell type.
Question 2:
Which of the following is the primary mediator of acute inflammation?
A) Histamine
B) Interleukin-6
C) Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)
D) Cortisol
Answer: A) Histamine
Rationale: Histamine, released by mast cells, causes vasodilation and increased vascular
permeability, initiating acute inflammation. TNF-α and IL-6 are cytokines that amplify the
inflammatory response. Cortisol is anti-inflammatory.
Question 3:
A patient presents with polycythemia vera. Which lab finding is most consistent with this
condition?
A) Low hemoglobin
B) Low hematocrit
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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C) High red blood cell count
D) Low platelet count
Answer: C) High red blood cell count
Rationale: Polycythemia vera is a myeloproliferative disorder causing excessive RBC
production, leading to increased hematocrit and blood viscosity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit are
elevated, and platelets can be normal or increased.
Question 4:
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause peaked T waves on an ECG?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypernatremia
Answer: B) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Elevated serum potassium levels affect cardiac repolarization, producing peaked T
waves, widening QRS complexes, and potentially leading to cardiac arrest. Hypokalemia causes
flattened T waves.
Question 5:
A 60-year-old patient has a BMI of 32 and fasting blood glucose of 150 mg/dL. Which type of
diabetes is most likely?
A) Type 1 diabetes
B) Type 2 diabetes
C) Gestational diabetes
D) MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young)
Answer: B) Type 2 diabetes
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is associated with insulin resistance, often linked to obesity, older
age, and lifestyle factors. Type 1 is autoimmune, usually onset in childhood or adolescence.
Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy.
Question 6:
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of injury in ischemic stroke?
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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A) Hemorrhage
B) Excitotoxicity
C) Infection
D) Autoimmune attack
Answer: B) Excitotoxicity
Rationale: Ischemia leads to glutamate accumulation, causing calcium influx and neuronal death
(excitotoxicity). Hemorrhage causes a different stroke type; infection or autoimmune attack is
not primary in ischemic stroke.
Question 7:
A patient with cirrhosis develops ascites. The primary pathophysiological mechanism is:
A) Increased albumin production
B) Portal hypertension and decreased oncotic pressure
C) Hypernatremia
D) Dehydration
Answer: B) Portal hypertension and decreased oncotic pressure
Rationale: Liver dysfunction reduces albumin synthesis (decreasing plasma oncotic pressure)
and portal hypertension increases hydrostatic pressure in the portal system, leading to fluid
accumulation in the abdomen (ascites).
Question 8:
Which of the following best describes metaplasia?
A) Cell death due to injury
B) Replacement of one differentiated cell type with another
C) Increase in cell size
D) Increase in cell number
Answer: B) Replacement of one differentiated cell type with another
Rationale: Metaplasia is an adaptive response where one mature cell type is replaced by another
better able to withstand stress (e.g., bronchial epithelium in smokers). Hypertrophy increases cell
size, hyperplasia increases cell number, and necrosis is cell death.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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Question 9:
A patient presents with dyspnea and a PaO₂ of 55 mmHg. Which type of hypoxia is this?
A) Hypoxic hypoxia
B) Anemic hypoxia
C) Circulatory hypoxia
D) Histotoxic hypoxia
Answer: A) Hypoxic hypoxia
Rationale: Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when arterial oxygen levels are low, typically from
respiratory or environmental causes. Anemic hypoxia is due to decreased oxygen-carrying
capacity, circulatory hypoxia from poor perfusion, and histotoxic hypoxia from cellular inability
to use oxygen.
Question 10:
A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) develops kidney damage. What type of
hypersensitivity reaction is most likely involved?
A) Type I (Immediate)
B) Type II (Cytotoxic)
C) Type III (Immune Complex)
D) Type IV (Delayed)
Answer: C) Type III (Immune Complex)
Rationale: SLE involves formation of antigen-antibody immune complexes that deposit in
tissues like the kidneys, causing inflammation and damage (type III hypersensitivity). Type I is
allergic, type II targets cells directly, and type IV is T-cell mediated delayed hypersensitivity.
Rheumatoid Arthritis - CORRECT ANSWER Chronic inflammatory
disorder affecting joints.
QUESTION :CBC - CORRECT ANSWER Complete blood count
measuring blood components.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm
EXAM Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified
| Updated (Actual Exam) 2026
Question 1:
A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an example of:
A) Atrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Metaplasia
Answer: C) Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, often in response to increased workload, such
as the left ventricle working harder against high blood pressure. Atrophy is a decrease in cell
size, hyperplasia is increased cell number, and metaplasia is a change in cell type.
Question 2:
Which of the following is the primary mediator of acute inflammation?
A) Histamine
B) Interleukin-6
C) Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)
D) Cortisol
Answer: A) Histamine
Rationale: Histamine, released by mast cells, causes vasodilation and increased vascular
permeability, initiating acute inflammation. TNF-α and IL-6 are cytokines that amplify the
inflammatory response. Cortisol is anti-inflammatory.
Question 3:
A patient presents with polycythemia vera. Which lab finding is most consistent with this
condition?
A) Low hemoglobin
B) Low hematocrit
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,2|Page
C) High red blood cell count
D) Low platelet count
Answer: C) High red blood cell count
Rationale: Polycythemia vera is a myeloproliferative disorder causing excessive RBC
production, leading to increased hematocrit and blood viscosity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit are
elevated, and platelets can be normal or increased.
Question 4:
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause peaked T waves on an ECG?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypernatremia
Answer: B) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Elevated serum potassium levels affect cardiac repolarization, producing peaked T
waves, widening QRS complexes, and potentially leading to cardiac arrest. Hypokalemia causes
flattened T waves.
Question 5:
A 60-year-old patient has a BMI of 32 and fasting blood glucose of 150 mg/dL. Which type of
diabetes is most likely?
A) Type 1 diabetes
B) Type 2 diabetes
C) Gestational diabetes
D) MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young)
Answer: B) Type 2 diabetes
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is associated with insulin resistance, often linked to obesity, older
age, and lifestyle factors. Type 1 is autoimmune, usually onset in childhood or adolescence.
Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy.
Question 6:
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of injury in ischemic stroke?
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,3|Page
A) Hemorrhage
B) Excitotoxicity
C) Infection
D) Autoimmune attack
Answer: B) Excitotoxicity
Rationale: Ischemia leads to glutamate accumulation, causing calcium influx and neuronal death
(excitotoxicity). Hemorrhage causes a different stroke type; infection or autoimmune attack is
not primary in ischemic stroke.
Question 7:
A patient with cirrhosis develops ascites. The primary pathophysiological mechanism is:
A) Increased albumin production
B) Portal hypertension and decreased oncotic pressure
C) Hypernatremia
D) Dehydration
Answer: B) Portal hypertension and decreased oncotic pressure
Rationale: Liver dysfunction reduces albumin synthesis (decreasing plasma oncotic pressure)
and portal hypertension increases hydrostatic pressure in the portal system, leading to fluid
accumulation in the abdomen (ascites).
Question 8:
Which of the following best describes metaplasia?
A) Cell death due to injury
B) Replacement of one differentiated cell type with another
C) Increase in cell size
D) Increase in cell number
Answer: B) Replacement of one differentiated cell type with another
Rationale: Metaplasia is an adaptive response where one mature cell type is replaced by another
better able to withstand stress (e.g., bronchial epithelium in smokers). Hypertrophy increases cell
size, hyperplasia increases cell number, and necrosis is cell death.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
, 4|Page
Question 9:
A patient presents with dyspnea and a PaO₂ of 55 mmHg. Which type of hypoxia is this?
A) Hypoxic hypoxia
B) Anemic hypoxia
C) Circulatory hypoxia
D) Histotoxic hypoxia
Answer: A) Hypoxic hypoxia
Rationale: Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when arterial oxygen levels are low, typically from
respiratory or environmental causes. Anemic hypoxia is due to decreased oxygen-carrying
capacity, circulatory hypoxia from poor perfusion, and histotoxic hypoxia from cellular inability
to use oxygen.
Question 10:
A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) develops kidney damage. What type of
hypersensitivity reaction is most likely involved?
A) Type I (Immediate)
B) Type II (Cytotoxic)
C) Type III (Immune Complex)
D) Type IV (Delayed)
Answer: C) Type III (Immune Complex)
Rationale: SLE involves formation of antigen-antibody immune complexes that deposit in
tissues like the kidneys, causing inflammation and damage (type III hypersensitivity). Type I is
allergic, type II targets cells directly, and type IV is T-cell mediated delayed hypersensitivity.
Rheumatoid Arthritis - CORRECT ANSWER Chronic inflammatory
disorder affecting joints.
QUESTION :CBC - CORRECT ANSWER Complete blood count
measuring blood components.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
