NETWORKING FINAL EXAM REVIEWER
[NOT FOR CERTIFICATION EXAM]
Which feature describes using personal tools to access information and communicate
across a business or campus network?
A. Cloud Computing
B. Video Communications
C. BYOD (Correct)
D. Smart Home Technology
Rationale: BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) is the practice of using personal devices to access
organizational networks and resources.
A characteristic of a network that allows it to expand quickly to support new users and
applications is called:
A. Quality of Service (QoS)
B. Fault Tolerance
C. Security
D. Scalability (Correct)
Rationale: Scalability refers to a network’s ability to grow and handle increased load without
redesign.
What is used to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address?
A. Subnet mask (Correct)
B. Right-most part of the IP address
C. Left-most part of the MAC address
D. MAC address
Rationale: The subnet mask indicates which bits in the IP address are network vs. host.
Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?
A. It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave.
B. It generates the electrical/optical/wireless signals that represent binary numbers.
C. It transmits data signals along with a clock at evenly spaced time durations.
D. It converts bits into a predefined code to provide a predictable pattern that helps
distinguish data bits from control bits. (Correct)
,ESTUDYR
Rationale: Frame encoding maps bitstreams into signal patterns (line codes) for reliable
transmission and synchronization.
Typically offered by cable TV providers, which service transmits internet data on the same
cable that delivers TV and provides high bandwidth, always-on connectivity?
A. Satellite
B. DSL
C. Cable (Correct)
D. Cellular
Rationale: Cable internet shares coaxial infrastructure with cable TV and gives high-bandwidth,
always-on access.
True or False? Mobile devices do not require IP addresses to communicate on the Internet.
A. False (Correct)
B. True
Rationale: Mobile devices require IP addresses (public or private with NAT) to communicate
over IP networks.
What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in Cisco IOS?
A. Abort the current command and return to configuration mode.
B. Exit configuration mode and return to user EXEC.
C. Move the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
D. Auto-complete the remainder of a partially typed command (Correct)
Rationale: Tab completion completes partially typed IOS commands when unambiguous.
A technician applies these commands: interface vlan 1 / ip address 192.168.1.1
255.255.255.0 / no shutdown. What is being configured?
A. Telnet access
B. SVI (Switch Virtual Interface) (Correct)
C. Password encryption
D. Physical switchport access
Rationale: interface vlan 1 creates/configures an SVI for remote management of a Layer 2
switch.
Which two hostnames follow Cisco IOS naming guidelines? (Choose two.)
A. Branch2!
B. RM-3-Switch-2A4 (Correct)
C. Floor(15)
D. HO Floor 17
E. SwBranch799 (Correct)
,ESTUDYR
Rationale: Valid hostnames avoid spaces and most special characters; RM-3-Switch-2A4 and
SwBranch799 are acceptable.
Which two statements are true about RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
A. RAM provides nonvolatile storage.
B. The running configuration is stored in RAM. (Correct)
C. The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle. (Correct)
D. RAM is only in switches, not routers.
E. RAM can store multiple IOS images permanently.
Rationale: Running-config and dynamic data reside in RAM; RAM is volatile (cleared on power
loss).
Which command or key allows a user to return to the previous level in the IOS command
hierarchy?
A. end
B. exit (Correct)
C. Ctrl-Z
D. Ctrl-C
Rationale: exit steps back one command level; end returns to privileged EXEC.
An administrator presses Ctrl-Shift-6 after issuing a ping on a Cisco device. What does this
do?
A. Restart the ping process
B. Interrupt the ping process (Correct)
C. Exit to a different configuration mode
D. Allow the user to complete the command
Rationale: Ctrl-Shift-6 (sometimes shown as Ctrl-^ ) aborts long-running commands like
ping/traceroute.
If you connect to a switch via a console cable to access user EXEC mode, which password
entry is required?
A. enable secret
B. linevtyin
C. line con 0 (console line password) (Correct — commonly shown as the console password)
D. line aux 0
Rationale: Console access is controlled by the console line (line con 0) password configured
under line settings.
A technician made unsaved changes to a router’s running config that didn’t fix a problem.
What action discards the unsaved changes and reloads the startup config?
, ESTUDYR
A. Delete vlan.dat and reboot.
B. Close and reopen terminal emulation.
C. Issue reload without saving the running configuration (Correct)
D. copy startup-config running-config
Rationale: reload without saving reverts to the saved startup-config in NVRAM; copy startup-
config running-config would overwrite running with startup.
Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?
A. The first Ethernet port interface
B. The console port interface
C. The switch virtual interface (SVI) (Correct)
D. The AUX interface
Rationale: An SVI provides an IP interface on the switch for remote access (SSH/Telnet/HTTP).
From privileged EXEC mode, which command enters global configuration mode?
A. line console 0
B. secret
C. enable
D. configure terminal (Correct)
Rationale: configure terminal (conf t) opens global config mode for device configuration.
Which topology diagrams illustrate devices, ports, and addressing (logical arrangement)?
A. Physical Topology
B. Transport Topology
C. Logical Topology (Correct)
D. Application Topology
Rationale: Logical topologies show paths, addressing, and how data flows between devices.
Having multiple paths to a destination (redundancy) exemplifies which network
characteristic?
A. Scalability
B. Quality of Service (QoS)
C. Security
D. Fault Tolerance (Correct)
Rationale: Fault tolerance uses redundant paths/devices to survive failures.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal B?
A. 11 (Correct)**
B. 8
C. 10