Portage Learning Microbiology Final Exam Already Graded A

Portage Learning Microbiology Final Exam Already Graded A Which of the following are considered protista? algae, amoeba T or F: a defining characteristic of protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers. True The function of the ribosome is: protein synthesis The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the: cell envelope The function of the golgi is: protein modification and distribution T or F: all multicellular microorganisms classified as animalia are autotropic. False. They are heterotropic How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate? 1 ATP In the absence of glucose which cannot be used as an alternate energy source? nucleic acid T or F: the b-oxidation pathway is responsible for the anabolism of fatty acid. False. it is responsible for catabolism of fatty acid. T or F: chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants True The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the follow: NADPH and ATP What is one of the main functions of light reactions? Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP. T or F: dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light True. Dark reactions do not actually require darkness. T or F: following the decolorization step of the gram stain, gram-negative bacteria will appear colorless. True Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide. ethanol, methanol You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process. Simple stain. crystal violet. methylane blue. You suspect your patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stain. You would expect to see red cells on a blue background. T or F: if a patient is suspected of having malaria, a giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform. True T or F: the purpose of a quadrant streak is to expand a bacterial population False When performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across tge plate in such as way to form what? The dilution gradient is formed. The resulting gradient should contain the growth of individual colonies. T or F: when performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each phase. True T or F: The purpose of a quadrant streak is to expand a bacterial population. False. In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4? P4 (Phase 4) would contain the lowest concentration of bacteria. The phases rank (from highest to lowest), P1 > P2 > P3 > P4. The P4 zone bacteria are weakened, thinned and diluted and are found in isolated colonies. T or F: when performing a dilution streak a new or sterilized loop must be used for each phase. True The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens? Either deviation is acceptable in practice provided the resulting gradient contains within it the growth of individual colonies—if not, the experiment must be repeated. T or F: to restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher may decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C. True When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suits this need? Why? LB media. All the other options are all forms of selective media, meaning they may potentially inhibit the growth of the unknown sample. The culture should be first expanded and then placed onto selective/differential plates T or F: Only directly ingesting the preformed clostridium toxin (Neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults. T. The mature adult microbiota is capable of killing the bacteria and spores. T or F: There are currently no cures for tetanus. True The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is associated with which medical condition caused by Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria? Gas gangrene. The bacterium that produces the alpha toxin perfringolysin is aptly named Clostridium perfringens. T or F: pneumonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes. F. Pneumonic plague targets the respiratory system while bubonic plague targets the lymph system. How do you determine the disease of anthrax? The distinct black center at the side of infection is a hallmark of anthrax infection. Usually an ulcer shape. T or F: Chlamydia is it an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar plates alone False. An obligate parasite requires a host to be present for its growth. T or F: similar to chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles can cover the entire body False. Unlike chickenpox, which can form anywhere, the blisters associated with shingles are localized and limited to small areas. While traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into contact with either the viriola? No. Both viruses are variants of smallpox and were eradicated. By who and where was the first polio vaccine developed? Jonas Salk. Pittsburgh A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit the release of newly produced viral particles. What the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins? Why? Neuraminidase proteins are directly involved in the budding and release of new viral particles and with us be the correct target. Hemagglutinin proteins would not be advisable targets as they are directly involved in viral attachment and entry into the host cell. T or F: The viral capsid of HIV is cone shaped and contains 2000 copies of the viral protein P 24. False What small single-stranded, non-envelope to RNA virus targets the CNS causing potentially catastrophic damage to motor neurons? Polio