HURST REVIEW Qbank/Customize Quiz - Management of care 2022

A 68-year-old client with a history of angina presents to the emergency department (ED) reporting flu like symptoms progressively worsening over the past 24 hours.What action is most important for the nurse to initiate? Exhibit: Client's Chief Complaint: "I have the flu. I have been vomiting every couple of hours, running a fever and my chest hurts." Vitals Signs: Pulse-132 beats/minute Respirations-26 breaths/minute Blood pressure-94/60 mmHg Temperature-101.3° F (38.5°C) orally Capillary refill - 4 seconds Primary Healthcare Provider Prescription: Rapid Influenza Diagnostic Test Normal Saline 1 liter at 250 mL/hour, then Normal Saline at 100 mL/hour. Chest X-ray Acetaminophen 500 mg po now. 1. Administer acetaminophen. 2. Initiate IV of Normal Saline at 250 mL/hour. 3. Notify radiology and lab of diagnostic test prescriptions. 4. Discuss IV prescription with primary healthcare provider. 4. Correct: This client needs fluid because of dehydration, but did you notice that this client is elderly and has a history of cardiac problems? I hope so, because giving this client NS rapidly could throw our heart client into pulmonary edema, which would be a bad thing! Talk to the primary healthcare provider. 1. Incorrect: Acetaminophen needs to be administered but it is not the most important thing for the nurse to do. Clarification regarding the IV fluid prescription is necessary here to prevent a possible complication. 2. Incorrect: If this client receives an isotonic IV solution at this rapid rate, the client will be at increased risk of developing FVE and pulmonary edema. 3. Incorrect: Again, the radiology and lab departments can be notified of the test prescriptions to be completed. However, the nurse can assign this task to the unit secretary. A child is admitted to the emergency department due to suspected ruptured appendicitis with perforation. What would be the priority nursing assessment for this client? 1. Monitor for the Rovsing sign. 2. Assess for an increase in temperature. 3. Check for rebound tenderness at McBurney's point. 4. Monitor for increasing pain and rigidity of the abdomen. 4. Correct: Increasing pain and rigid, board-like abdomen are signs that the appendix may have ruptured, with resulting peritonitis developing. 1. Incorrect: The Rovsing Sign results in RLQ pain that occurs with palpation of the LLQ. This suggests peritoneal irritation due to palpation of a remote location and would indicate appendicitis. 2. Incorrect: Although children with appendicitis may have an elevated temperature, the priority would be assessing for the signs of peritonitis which include increasing pain and rigidity of the abdomen. Children can have an increased temperature with many different types of inflammation and infections. 3. Incorrect: Although rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is indicative of appendicitis, the nurse should not check for this due to the possibility of rupturing the appendix. The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client during the first day post-craniotomy. Which actions can the nurse delegate to an experienced LPN/LVN working in the ICU? Select all that apply 1. Determine Glasgow Coma Score. 2. Check endotracheal tube (ET) cuff pressure every shift. 3. Reposition client from side to side every 2 hours. 4. Administer acetaminophen via nasogastric tube for temperature greater than 101ºF (38.3ºC). 5. Monitor intake and output every hour. 4., & 5. Correct: Both of these actions are within the scope of practice for the LPN/LVN. 1. Incorrect: Assessing the Glasgow Coma Score should be done by the RN. 2. Incorrect: ET tube cuff assessment is accomplished by an experienced RN. 3. Incorrect: Usually, repositioning a client would be within the scope of practice for the LPN/LVN; however, this client is at risk for increased ICP during position changes. The RN must monitor. The women's health charge nurse is making assignments for the next shift. The unit is short one staff member and will receive a nurse from the medical surgical unit. Which group of clients should she assign to the medical surgical nurse? 1. Total abdominal hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, client with breast reduction. 2. C-section planning discharge, postpartum infection, mastectomy. 3. Vaginal delivery of fetal demise, C-section with pneumonia, 32 week gestation with lymphoma. 4. 28 week gestation of bed rest, postpartum with HELLP syndrome, breast reconstruction. 1. Correct: This group of clients is primarily med surgical. 2. Incorrect: This group of clients needs specific teaching. 3. Incorrect: This group of clients needs specialized care. 4. Incorrect: No, the monitoring is too specific for the med-surg nurse. What clients could safely be delegated to the LPN/LVN? Select all that apply 1. A client two days post appendectomy needing to ambulate. 2. A client with bronchitis receiving nebulizer treatments. 3. A newly diagnosed diabetic client awaiting discharge home. 4. A client newly admitted with exacerbation of myasthenia gravis. 5. A client admitted yesterday for observation following a fall. 6. A client with a nasogastric tube (NG) hooked to low suction. 1, 2, 5 & 6. Correct: These clients are appropriate and stable enough for the LPN/LVN's scope of practice. While an LPN/LVN cannot be assigned a fresh post-op, the first client had an appendectomy two days ago. The LPN/LVN could even delegate ambulating this client to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). A client with bronchitis will need a respiratory assessment by the RN at some point, but the LPN/LVN is definitely qualified to administer aerosol treatments. The third client was admitted for observation following a fall a day ago, indicating no injuries serious enough for a full admission. PNs can insert and monitor NG tubes. 3. Incorrect: This client is a newly diagnosed diabetic who will require extensive teaching about self care at home. Additionally, discharging a client always involves teaching, which cannot be initiated by an LPN/LVN. This option does not indicate that any teaching had been presented, so the client is not an appropriate assignment for the LPN/LVN. 4. Incorrect: Myasthenia Gravis is a progressive weakening of the neuromuscular system placing the greatest risk on the respiratory system. Although this client is on a medical-surgical floor, there is a need for close monitoring and frequent assessment of the respiratory system, requiring an RN. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) on the Labor and Delivery unit is assisting the nurse with multiple admissions. What tasks could the LPN complete until the nurse is available? Select all that apply 1. Take initial vital signs. 2. Measure cervical dilation. 3. Check fundal height and fetal heart rate (FHR). 4. Obtain urine for protein and glucose. 5. Collect vaginal swab to test for chlamydia. 1, 4, & 5. Correct: The LPN scope of practice varies from state to state, although basic tasks are consistent. Taking vital signs, even initially, is among the tasks that can be delegated to the LPN. Other appropriate duties include collecting urine for ordered tests and even obtaining a vaginal swab. These can definitely be delegated to a licensed practical nurse. 2. Incorrect: Measuring cervical dilation is an invasive assessment not within the LPN scope of practice. An experienced registered nurse or primary healthcare provider must be specifically trained to perform this procedure. 3. Incorrect: Fundal height is a determination of uterine size to assess fetal growth and development which cannot be delegated to an LPN. Additionally, determining fetal heart rate involves assessment of fetal well being and not within the LPN scope of practice. The charge nurse tells a nurse that multiple sick calls from the upcoming shift has occurred. The charge nurse asks the nurse who works in a state where mandatory overtime is legal to work an additional 8 hours of mandatory overtime. The nurse has just completed a 12 hour shift. What options would be appropriate for the nurse to take? Select all that apply 1. Assess personal level of fatigue prior to making a decision regarding accepting or refusing assignment. 2. Suggest splitting the shift with another nurse. 3. Accept assignment, documenting personal concerns regarding work conditions. 4. Refuse the overtime assignment, being prepared for disciplinary action. 5. Simply accept the assignment since overtime is mandatory. 1., 2., 3., & 4. Correct: The nurse's level of fatigue must be considered especially under conditions of mandatory overtime. Splitting the overtime shift is an acceptable option that the nurse could suggest in order to solve the staffing problem and decrease the amount of time the nurse will be working. The nurse can accept the assignment, documenting your personal concerns regarding working conditions in which management decides the legitimacy of employee's personal concerns. This documentation should go to your manager. Refuse the assignment, being prepared for disciplinary action. If your reasons for refusal were client safety, nurse safety, or an imperative personal commitment, document this carefully including the process you used to inform the facility (nurse manager) of your concerns. Keep a personal copy of this documentation, provide a copy to the immediate supervisor, and send a copy to the Local Unit Officer. 5. Incorrect. The nurse can also accept the assignment; however, that nurse should document professional concern for client safety and the process you used to inform the facility (manager) of your concerns. Remember if you work overtime, fatigue is not a viable reason for a error and will not stand up in court. A nurse on the unit has had a disagreement with the family of a client regarding the client's dressing change. What is the best action by the nurse manager? 1. Meet with the family member and the RN to discuss the disagreement. 2. Assure the family member that the nurse followed the hospital procedure. 3. Discuss the dressing change procedure with the RN and compare to a current textbook. 4. Report the argument to the hospital administrator. 1. Correct: When conflict occurs, meet with both parties together to discuss the problem. Each party can hear what the other is saying and the nurse manager is not caught in the middle. They will be able to come up with solutions together or the manager can mediate. 2. Incorrect: It is ok to clarify that the nurse followed hospital procedure. However, the nurse is sing the nontherapeutic communication technique of blocking. The family member may still believe that there is another procedure that could have been initiated. 3. Incorrect: You may want to do this as well, but it will not address the conflict. The conflict is that the family member disagrees with the nurse's procedure for dressing change. 4. Incorrect: The nurse manager must try to resolve the conflict between the family member and the nurse first. If the conflict cannot be resolved the nurse manager would notify the person that is next in the chain of command. After reviewing the client assignments, the LPN/LVN tells the RN the assignment is very unfair and requests that some of the clients be redistributed to the other staff. What should the RN do first? 1. Ask the LPN/LVN how the client assignment should be adjusted. 2. Assign one of the LPN/LVN's clients to another nurse. 3. Encourage the LPN/LVN to use teamwork skills in caring for the clients. 4. Develop a strategic plan to assist with client assignments. 1. Correct: Explore her concerns; this is most therapeutic and helpful response. Finding out what are LPN/LVN's concerns first will help the RN address the LPN/LVN's request and build trust in the healthcare team relationship. 2. Incorrect: This statement does not help the RN understand the LPN/LVN's concern about the assignment, an negates the confidence in the LPN/LVN's abilities and skills. 3. Incorrect: This answer does not acknowledge the LPN/VN's concern. 4. Incorrect: This action will not help address the LPN/LVN's immediate concern with the assignment and makes resolution of the issue much more complicated than it should be. A newly hired unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) at a long-term care facility is being instructed on the proper method of feeding a stroke client with dysphagia. The nurse knows teaching was successful when the UAP makes what statement? 1. "Feeding the client in semi-fowler's position is easier." 2. "I should not allow the client to do any self-feeding." 3. "Thickened liquids are safer for the client to swallow." 4. "I am offering the client a drink after each bite to help digestion." 3. Correct: Thickened liquids allow for easier swallowing and less choking, thus decreasing the chance of aspiration. The client should be sitting upright and fed small amounts of food slowly, allowing time for chewing and swallowing. This statement indicates the UAP understands proper feeding protocols. 1. Incorrect: Semi-fowler's is a "semi-reclining" position, which would greatly increase the risk of aspiration during meals. This comment indicates the UAP would need further instruction. 2. Incorrect: It is crucial to encourage a stroke client to participate as much as possible in self-care, including feeding and bathing. If this client is capable of using utensils, such as modified silverware, it is important to allow as much participation in activities of daily living (ADL) as possible. If the UAP made this comment, further teaching is indicated. 4. Incorrect: Liquids after every bite would quickly fill up the client, decreasing the amount of food intake. Feeding slowly and allowing the client time to swallow after each bite is sufficient for digestion. Such a statement from the UAP means further instruction is needed. A paralyzed adolescent admitted for decubiti debridement has brought multiple personal electronics, including a laptop, cell phone and video game unit. The nurse notes the family has used extension cords to provide enough electrical outlets. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. Inform family some of the electronics must be taken home. 2. Explain that extension cords are not permitted in a hospital. 3. Notify maintenance to install more outlets in the client room. 4. Ask client to have staff switch equipment in outlets as needed. 4. Correct: Extension cords are considered a safety hazard in the hospital setting, especially when provided by the family. The nurse has provided an alternative in order for the client to use personal equipment. Staff will assist the client to switch equipment when requested. 1. Incorrect: The nurse is violating the client's right to keep personal belongings while providing no alternative suggestion for the client. Additionally, the nurse has not addressed the use of extension cords in the hospital. 2. Incorrect: Though the nurse is making an accurate statement, no alternative plan has been offered to help meet the client's needs. 3. Incorrect: It is not possible to have maintenance perform construction in a room currently occupied by a client. Installing outlets for one client is not feasible. The nurse is reviewing some clients' prescriptions. Which prescription should the nurse question and have corrected? Select all that apply 1. Furosemide 40 mg PO q.d. 2. Lisinopril 20.0 mg PO daily 3. Start MgSO4 at 3g/hr IV 4. Risperidone .5 mg PO daily 5. Dexlansoprazole 30 mg PO daily 1., 2., 3., & 4. Correct: Nurses must use and recognize appropriate terminology and abbreviations to avoid potential client harm. There are potential problems in Options #1, 2, 3, and 4 and should be questioned and corrected. So what is wrong with option #1? Well, do you see the q.d.? This is on the "Do Not Use" list of abbreviations because the period after the "Q" can be mistaken for "I", which would be interpreted as qid (four times a day) instead of the intended once daily dosage. Now, in Option #2, we see a dangerous prescription. There is a trailing zero after the prescribed dose. This could be devastating to the client if the decimal point is missed and the client receives 200 mg instead of the intended 20 mg of lisinopril. For Option #3, you may have recognized MgSO4 as being magnesium sulfate. However, it is on the "Do Not Use" list of abbreviations because it can be confused with morphine sulfate (MSO4). Administering 3 g/hr IV of morphine would be extremely dangerous. In option #4, we see that the leading zero is missing from the prescription. If the decimal point is missed in this situation, the client could receive 5 mg instead of the intended dose of 0.5 mg of risperidone. 5. Incorrect: This prescription is written correctly. Four clients arrive for their appointment at a diabetic clinic. In what order should the nurse see the clients? Client eating a simple-carb snack due to weakness. Client scheduled for a dressing change to foot ulcer. Client to receive dietary education. Client reporting a headache and has a fruity breath. Drag and Drop the items from one box to the other The first client needing the nurse's attention is the one reporting a headache and has a fruity odor to their breath. Remember, pick the killer answer first! This client is likely in metabolic acidosis due to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What was the hint? Fruity breath. The second client that needs to be seen by the nurse is the client having weakness, a sign of hypoglycemia. This is a diabetic clinic. This client is eating a simple carb snack, but the nurse needs to check the client's blood glucose level to see if the snack has helped. The third client would be the one needing a dressing change. Nothing life threatening, but an assessment needs to be made regarding the ulcer. The last client would be the one needing dietary education. Nothing life threatening. This client can wait until the others are treated. An injured client brought to the emergency room by ambulance insists on leaving before being seen by the primary healthcare provider. What is the nurse's priority action? 1. Explain potential risks of leaving without proper care. 2. Insist the client sign "Against Medical Advice" form. 3. Calmly convince client to wait for needed treatment. 4. Notify primary healthcare provider immediately. 4. Correct: The nurse must notify the primary healthcare provider immediately about the client's desire to leave without care. The client cannot be physically prevented from leaving, or threatened with possible dire consequences by the nurse. The primary healthcare provider can explain potential risks of non-treatment and obtain a signature on the AMA form. 1. Incorrect: The client must be informed about the potential risks of leaving without medical treatment and that information is best explained by either the emergency room healthcare provider or primary healthcare provider based on knowledge of the client's potential injuries. 2. Incorrect: An "Against Medical Advice" (AMA) form is designed to protect staff and facility from potential litigation filed by clients leaving without treatment. However, a client cannot be forced to sign the form and this is not the nurse's priority action. 3. Incorrect: The nurse can use therapeutic techniques to discuss the situation and try to discover why the client wants to leave. However, there is another priority more important for the nurse. The nurse manager on a medical-surgical unit receives official notification that staff overtime must be decreased as a cost-saving measure. In order to reorganize staffing, the nurse manager should initiate which action first? 1. Announce the new changes at the monthly staff meeting. 2. Ask for any staff objections to rearranging work hours. 3. Invite staff to contribute ideas on scheduling changes. 4. Explain administration is demanding a decreased overtime. 3. Correct: The nurse manager is aware that open communication with staff is vital to increase workplace satisfaction and staff retention. One important aspect is encouraging the flow of ideas between management and staff members. Open communication and brainstorming sessions in which staff can freely share thoughts or ideas creates a positive work environment while helping decrease dissatisfaction. 1. Incorrect: While it is true that the nurse manager is ultimately responsible for implementing and announcing new schedule changes, doing so without any staff input can create discontent in the work environment. When staff do not feel vested in any new process, there is a sense of underappreciation. This perceived lack of control can create distrust and frustration among personnel, ultimately impacting client care. 2. Incorrect: Although this action appears to be opening lines of communication, the nurse manager is actually fostering animosity in a situation where the outcome is already predetermined. Allowing staff to vent is acceptable but the nurse manager should focus on constructive methods of adjustment to the impending mandated changes. 4. Incorrect: The nurse manager is aware that health care facilities often face both political and financial issues that impact staff and clients simultaneously. The responsibility of the nurse manager is to implement change in a positive manner, while assisting staff adaptation even to unpopular modifications. Assigning blame for the changes to administration will not help staff adjust. What task would be appropriate for a nurse caring for a client diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? 1. Inform the client of the need to avoid irritants such as carbonated beverages. 2. Ask client if they are eating small, frequent meals. 3. Monitor for GI upset 30 minutes after meals. 4. Remind the client to avoid tight fitting clothes. 4. Correct: The UAP can remind the client to do something that has already been taught by the nurse. 1. Incorrect: Informing is the same thing as teaching. Although this is a correct thing to inform the client, this teaching should be done by the RN and not delegated to the UAP. 2. Incorrect: The RN is responsible for collecting data. 3. Incorrect: The RN is responsible for assessment and evaluation. Which tasks are most appropriate for the hospice nurse to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? Select all that apply 1. Bathe the client. 2. Provide spiritual support 3. Listen to the client reminisce. 4. Administer routine medications. 5. Weigh the client. 6. Take vital signs 1., 3., 5., & 6. Correct: The UAP can bathe, listen to the client reminisce, weigh, and take the vital signs. These are within the scope of practice of the UAP. These assignments are routine and revolve around activities of daily living. 2. Incorrect: The task of providing spiritual support could best be delegated to the pastor or chaplain. 4. Incorrect: The nurse can not delegate routine medication administration to the UAP. This is not within the UAPs scope of practice. This is an LPN or RN responsibility. The nurse walks into a client's room and finds the client exposed while the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is giving the bath. After covering the client with a sheet, what should the nurse do first? 1. Tell the UAP to keep the client covered at all times. 2. Talk with the UAP about providing appropriate care for all clients. 3. Provide teaching to the UAP about privacy for clients. 4. Use the call light to ask for additional assistance in the room. 1. Correct: A comment should be made about keeping the client covered. This instruction is the first action after covering the client. 2. Incorrect: The nurse should talk with the UAP but the discussion should focus specifically about providing privacy for clients. 3. Incorrect: The nurse may want to provide teaching, but this is not first action. Teaching would require allowing enough time to give instructions and then arranging time for return demonstration. 4. Incorrect: The UAP should be allowed to finish the bath. Additional assistance is not needed. A newly appointed nurse manager on the unit has a stable staff who have worked together for 5 or more years. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) are accustomed to informally arranging their lunch time; however, the nurse manager has implemented a plan to assign breaks and lunch. The UAPs are angry and refuse to change to the new system. What should be the nurse manager's first action in this situation? 1. Plan a unit staff meeting to discuss the problem and receive input for resolution. 2. Inform the staff that the plan will be implemented and those not following the plan will be disciplined. 3. Ask the charge nurse to address the problem daily as it occurs. 4. Plan a meeting with all UAPs to discuss the problem and reason for the new assignments. 1. Correct: The key word in the stem is first. So yes, get everyone together and discuss the problem and find areas of compromise where possible. 2. Incorrect: Too authoritative. This is good staff that has worked together on the unit for a long time. We want them to be happy and get the work done. Again, the key word in the stem is first. 3. Incorrect: No, this is a manager's issue resulting from a new system. This may need to be done but is not the first action. 4. Incorrect: Explaining the rationale to one group does not promote teamwork. It is better to plan a unit staff meeting and not a meeting for only the UAPs. A charge nurse is teaching a new nurse on the labor and delivery floor the proper positioning of a client following an epidural. The charge nurse knows the teaching was successful when the new nurse places the client in which position? 1. Lithotomy 2. Left-lateral 3. Semi-Fowler's 4. Right-lateral 2. CORRECT: The left-lateral position is most appropriate following epidural anesthesia. In this position, the placenta is well perfused and the client is less likely to experience side effects from anesthesia, such as hypotension. 1. INCORRECT: The lithotomy position is supine with legs separated, knees flexed and elevated with feet supported in stirrups. Such a position is appropriate for gynecologic exams, but would place too much pressure on the vena cava at this time. 3. INCORRECT: In this position, the client is supine with the head of the bed elevated between 30 and 90 degrees. This is a good position for those with breathing difficulties; however, following an epidural, elevating the head may drop the blood pressure, while leaving the client supine and putting pressure on the vena cava. 4. INCORRECT: The right-lateral position is on the right side, with left leg flexed toward the head, and is useful to avoid hypotension. But this is not the best position following an epidural for improving uteroplacental perfusion. The nurse receives new primary healthcare provider prescriptions on a client diagnosed with Addison's disease. What prescription should the nurse question? Select all that apply 1. Weigh QD 2. IV of Normal Saline at 125 mL/hr 3. MRI of pituitary gland 4. Fludrocortisone acetate 0.1 mg by mouth T.I.W. 5. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) 5 mg by mouth every other day 1., & 4. Correct: QD is listed on the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) official "do not use" list of abbreviations. This should be prescribed as "daily" instead of "QD". The abbreviation T.I.W. stands for three times a week; however, it is an unapproved abbreviation. Use "three times a week". 2. Incorrect: This is a correct action, for a client with Addison's disease, and it is written properly. 3. Incorrect: The primary healthcare provider may suggest a MRI scan of the pituitary gland if testing indicates the client might have secondary adrenal insufficiency. This is an approved abbreviation. 5. Incorrect: This is written correctly and may be given to women to treat androgen deficiency in cases such as this client with Addison's disease. A 70 year old client was admitted to the unit during the night shift with chronic hypertension. At 0830, the unlicensed nursing assistant (UAP) reports that the client's blood pressure is 198/94 mm Hg. What would be the best action for the charge nurse to delegate at this time? 1. Ask the UAP to put the client back in bed immediately. 2. Tell the UAP to take the BP in the opposite arm in 15 minutes. 3. Have the LPN/LVN administer the 0900 furosemide and enalapril now. 4. Ask the LPN/LVN to assess the client for pain. 3. Correct. Administering the client's blood pressure medicines are aimed at correcting the hypertension. The therapeutic action of furosemide is diuresis which will lower the blood pressure. Enalapril is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) that treats hypertension. These medications can be administered within 30 minutes of 0900. 1. Incorrect. Assisting the client back to bed is appropriate, but does not address the problem of lowering the client's BP. Administration of furosemide and enalapril will benefit the client with hypertension. 2. Incorrect. Retaking the BP in the opposite arm is within the scope of practice of an UAP, but does not address the problem of lowering the client's blood pressure. Additionally this should be completed prior to 15 minutes time. The priority is to get the BP down by giving the prescribed medications for hypertension. 4. Incorrect. The LPN can ask the client if they have chest pain. The client does have a BP of 198/94 which could lead to chest pain. The priority is to get the BP down to decrease the risk of complications associated with hypertension, such as MI, and stroke. The RN, LPN, and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for clients on the nursing unit. Which tasks could be completed only by the RN? Select all that apply 1. Administration of routine medications. 2. Dressing changes. 3. Assessment of newly admitted clients. 4. Calling the primary healthcare provider about lab results. 5. Teaching the diabetic client foot care. 3. & 5. Correct: Admission assessments and teaching must be performed by the RN. The nursing process, along with teaching are outside the scope of practice of the LPN. These are tasks that must be performed by the RN. The LPN can reinforce teaching. 1. Incorrect: Medication administration is within the LPN scope of practice and can be completed by the LPN. 2. Incorrect: Dressing changes may be delegated to the LPN as this is within the LPN scope of practice. 4. Incorrect: The LPN may call lab results to the primary healthcare provider because this is within the scope of practice for the LPN. If any additional prescriptions are required, the LPN can take these prescriptions over the phone.