NR 602 Primary Care Midterm Exam Prep 2026 Chamberlain College
1. A 12-month-old child is brought in for a well-child visit. Which developmental
milestone is expected at this age?
A. Ability to hop on one foot
B. Standing alone and taking a few steps
C. Speaking in 4-word sentences
D. Copying a circle
Answer: B
Rationale: At 12 months, infants typically begin to stand alone and take their first steps.
Hopping and copying circles are preschool milestones, and 4-word sentences occur much
later.
2. A woman presents with a thick, white, ‘cottage cheese’ vaginal discharge and
intense pruritus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial Vaginosis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Chlamydia
D. Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
Answer: D
Rationale: Vulvovaginal candidiasis (yeast infection) typically presents with a curd-like,
white discharge and significant itching.
,3. According to the CDC, at what age should the first dose of the MMR vaccine
be administered?
A. Birth
B. 12-15 months
C. 6 months
D. 2 months
Answer: B
Rationale: The first dose of Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) is recommended
between 12 and 15 months of age.
4. Which of the following is a classic clinical finding in a child with Croup?
A. Barking cough
B. High-pitched wheezing
C. Productive bloody sputum
D. Expiratory grunting
Answer: A
Rationale: Croup, often caused by the parainfluenza virus, is characterized by
inflammation of the larynx and trachea, leading to a distinctive barking cough and
inspiratory stridor.
5. A 24-year-old female requests contraception that does not require daily
adherence. Which option is considered a LARC?
A. Oral contraceptive pills
B. The vaginal ring
C. The contraceptive patch
D. Intrauterine Device (IUD)
Answer: D
Rationale: Long-Acting Reversible Contraception (LARC) includes IUDs and subdermal
implants, which provide high efficacy for years without daily or monthly action.
, 6. Which Tanner stage is characterized by the projection of the areola and
papilla to form a secondary mound above the level of the breast?
A. Stage II
B. Stage IV
C. Stage III
D. Stage V
Answer: B
Rationale: Tanner Stage IV is defined by the development of a secondary mound by the
areola and papilla; in Stage V, only the papilla projects.
7. What is the recommended first-line treatment for an uncomplicated urinary
tract infection in a non-pregnant adult female?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
B. Doxycycline
C. Azithromycin
D. Ceftriaxone
Answer: A
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin or TMP-SMX (Bactrim) are standard first-line therapies for
uncomplicated UTIs, provided local resistance rates are low.
8. A 15-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe scrotal pain and a
missing cremasteric reflex. This is most suggestive of:
A. Epididymitis
B. Hydrocele
C. Testicular Torsion
D. Inguinal Hernia
Answer: C
Rationale: Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency characterized by sudden pain and the
absence of the cremasteric reflex on the affected side.
1. A 12-month-old child is brought in for a well-child visit. Which developmental
milestone is expected at this age?
A. Ability to hop on one foot
B. Standing alone and taking a few steps
C. Speaking in 4-word sentences
D. Copying a circle
Answer: B
Rationale: At 12 months, infants typically begin to stand alone and take their first steps.
Hopping and copying circles are preschool milestones, and 4-word sentences occur much
later.
2. A woman presents with a thick, white, ‘cottage cheese’ vaginal discharge and
intense pruritus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial Vaginosis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Chlamydia
D. Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
Answer: D
Rationale: Vulvovaginal candidiasis (yeast infection) typically presents with a curd-like,
white discharge and significant itching.
,3. According to the CDC, at what age should the first dose of the MMR vaccine
be administered?
A. Birth
B. 12-15 months
C. 6 months
D. 2 months
Answer: B
Rationale: The first dose of Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) is recommended
between 12 and 15 months of age.
4. Which of the following is a classic clinical finding in a child with Croup?
A. Barking cough
B. High-pitched wheezing
C. Productive bloody sputum
D. Expiratory grunting
Answer: A
Rationale: Croup, often caused by the parainfluenza virus, is characterized by
inflammation of the larynx and trachea, leading to a distinctive barking cough and
inspiratory stridor.
5. A 24-year-old female requests contraception that does not require daily
adherence. Which option is considered a LARC?
A. Oral contraceptive pills
B. The vaginal ring
C. The contraceptive patch
D. Intrauterine Device (IUD)
Answer: D
Rationale: Long-Acting Reversible Contraception (LARC) includes IUDs and subdermal
implants, which provide high efficacy for years without daily or monthly action.
, 6. Which Tanner stage is characterized by the projection of the areola and
papilla to form a secondary mound above the level of the breast?
A. Stage II
B. Stage IV
C. Stage III
D. Stage V
Answer: B
Rationale: Tanner Stage IV is defined by the development of a secondary mound by the
areola and papilla; in Stage V, only the papilla projects.
7. What is the recommended first-line treatment for an uncomplicated urinary
tract infection in a non-pregnant adult female?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
B. Doxycycline
C. Azithromycin
D. Ceftriaxone
Answer: A
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin or TMP-SMX (Bactrim) are standard first-line therapies for
uncomplicated UTIs, provided local resistance rates are low.
8. A 15-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe scrotal pain and a
missing cremasteric reflex. This is most suggestive of:
A. Epididymitis
B. Hydrocele
C. Testicular Torsion
D. Inguinal Hernia
Answer: C
Rationale: Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency characterized by sudden pain and the
absence of the cremasteric reflex on the affected side.
