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C722 Project Management Study Guide – Highlighted Notes + JO’s Tips + Practice Test | Updated Version | Guaranteed Pass A+

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Pass C722 Project Management with confidence using this all-in-one, student-friendly study guide. This resource combines highlighted key concepts, JO’s proven exam tips, and a realistic practice test designed to mirror the C722 assessment structure and learning objectives. What’s Included: Highlighted, easy-to-review study guide JO’s insider tips for understanding tricky concepts Practice test with accurate answers Coverage of project lifecycle, scope, cost, risk & quality Agile vs. Waterfall methodologies Stakeholder & communication management Perfect for final review and first-time pass

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C722- Project Management, WGU C722
(Pre), WGU C722 Project Management
Terminology, WGU C722 Project
Management Terminology, WGU C722
Equations 2026
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Q1: What is the primary purpose of the Project Charter?
A: Formally authorize the project and define high-level objectives.
Rationale: It gives the project manager authority and establishes initial scope and stakeholders.



Q2: Which role is responsible for ensuring the project delivers the agreed scope?
A: Project Sponsor
Rationale: The sponsor champions the project and authorizes major decisions.



Q3: What process group occurs throughout the project?
A: Monitoring and Controlling
Rationale: This group continuously tracks, reviews, and regulates progress.



Q4: The Project Management Plan is developed during:
A: Planning
Rationale: It integrates subsidiary plans (scope, schedule, cost, risk, etc.).



Q5: The main output of Develop Project Charter is:
A: Project Charter
Rationale: Official authorization to proceed.




practice exam 2026

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Q6: Integrated Change Control is performed in:
A: Monitoring and Controlling
Rationale: Ensures changes are evaluated before approval.



Q7: A stakeholder’s needs are documented in:
A: Requirements documentation
Rationale: Basis for defining scope and acceptance criteria.



Q8: Which technique prioritizes objectives by trade-off analysis?
A: Decision tree
Rationale: Supports evaluating risky decisions across outcomes.



Q9: The project manager’s primary responsibility is:
A: Delivering project objectives within constraints
Rationale: Balances scope, schedule, cost, quality, and stakeholders.



Q10: A benefit of strong project integration is:
A: Better alignment of objectives across teams
Rationale: Promotes unified execution and stakeholder satisfaction.



11–20: Scope Management

Q11: What establishes project boundaries and deliverables?
A: Scope Statement
Rationale: Describes what is included and excluded.



Q12: A WBS is used to:
A: Decompose work into manageable components
Rationale: Enables planning, estimating, and assignment of work.




practice exam 2026

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Q13: WBS work packages should be:
A: Small enough to estimate duration and cost
Rationale: Helps improve accuracy.



Q14: The process to confirm deliverables with stakeholders is:
A: Validate Scope
Rationale: Ensures acceptance of completed work.



Q15: Scope creep occurs due to:
A: Uncontrolled changes
Rationale: Changes not properly managed lead to scope increase.



Q16: A detailed description of deliverables is found in:
A: Scope Baseline
Rationale: Includes scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary.



Q17: Change requests affecting scope must go through:
A: Integrated Change Control
Rationale: Ensures evaluation across all impact areas.



Q18: The process of subdividing project deliverables is:
A: Create WBS
Rationale: Breaks down work for planning and control.



Q19: Project exclusions are part of:
A: Scope Statement
Rationale: Clarifies what is not included.



Q20: “Requirements traceability matrix” helps ensure:
A: Requirements are tracked through project life
Rationale: Ensures work aligns with original objectives.



practice exam 2026

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21–30: Schedule & Time Management

Q21: The first scheduling step is:
A: Define Activities
Rationale: Break down WBS work into schedule tasks.



Q22: Sequence activities output is:
A: Network Diagram
Rationale: Shows logical order of work.



Q23: Critical path determines:
A: Longest path and shortest project duration
Rationale: Tasks on critical path have zero float.



Q24: Fast-tracking means:
A: Performing activities in parallel
Rationale: Shortens schedule but increases risk.



Q25: Crashing a schedule increases:
A: Cost
Rationale: Adds resources to reduce duration.



Q26: A Gantt chart is primarily used to:
A: Visualize schedule over time
Rationale: Helps track start/end dates of tasks.



Q27: Free float refers to:
A: Delay allowed without affecting successor tasks
Rationale: Limited to individual activity.




practice exam 2026

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