PNCB CPNP® Practice Test 2026: Ace Your
Pediatric Nurse Certification
Description:
Ready to conquer the Certified Pediatric Nurse Practitioner (CPNP®) exam? Our 2026 CPNP®
practice test is meticulously crafted with the latest PNCB guidelines in mind. This targeted
review features challenging, scenario-based pediatric board review questions that mirror the
actual exam's format and content. We cover all essential domains, from pediatric infectious
disease management and child development milestones to complex pediatric cardiology and
adolescent medicine.
Stop wasting time with outdated materials. Our questions include detailed rationales and
explanations for every answer, transforming your study time into an effective learning session.
Whether you're a recent graduate or an experienced nurse advancing your career, this is the
ultimate tool to identify your weak spots and build unshakable confidence.
Don't just hope to pass—guarantee your success. Download your free sample questions and start
studying smarter today!
, 2026 PNCB CPNP® Exam Practice Questions & Answers
Instructions: Please select the single best answer for each of the following questions.
Section 1: Infectious Diseases & Dermatology
1. A 3-year-old child presents with acute onset of a "barky" cough, hoarseness, and inspiratory
stridor. Symptoms began abruptly in the evening after two days of mild rhinorrhea. What is the
most appropriate initial management for this patient?
a. Oral Amoxicillin
b. Nebulized racemic epinephrine
c. A single dose of oral Dexamethasone
d. Inhaled Albuterol
Answer: C
Explanation: The clinical picture is classic for viral croup (laryngotracheitis). Current guidelines
recommend corticosteroids for all children with croup, regardless of severity, as they lessen the
severity and duration of symptoms. Oral dexamethasone is effective and preferred for mild to
moderate cases. Nebulized epinephrine (B) is reserved for moderate to severe cases with stridor
at rest. Antibiotics (A) are not indicated for this viral illness, and albuterol (D) is used for
bronchospasm in asthma, not for upper airway edema.
2. A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever up to 103°F, and
today developed a diffuse, blanching, pinkish-red maculopapular rash. The child appears well
and is playing in the examination room. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Measles (Rubeola)
b. Roseola (Exanthem Subitum)
c. Scarlet Fever
d. Rubella
Answer: B
Explanation: The presentation of high fever for several days that resolves abruptly as a non-
pruritic rash appears is characteristic of Roseola, typically caused by Human Herpesvirus 6
(HHV-6). The child's well appearance despite the recent high fever is a key feature. Measles (A)
, presents with a prodrome of cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis, followed by Koplik spots. Scarlet
fever (C) presents with a sandpaper-like rash and often a strawberry tongue. Rubella (D)
typically presents with a rash concurrent with low-grade fever and prominent lymphadenopathy.
3. A 7-year-old child presents with a well-demarcated, erythematous, scaly plaque with a raised,
serpiginous border on the forearm. A KOH preparation of skin scrapings reveals hyphae. What is
the most appropriate first-line treatment?
a. Oral Griseofulvin
b. Topical Mupirocin
c. Topical Clotrimazole
d. Oral Cephalexin
Answer: C
Explanation: The description and positive KOH test confirm Tinea corporis (ringworm). First-
line treatment for limited, uncomplicated lesions is a topical antifungal agent such as
clotrimazole, miconazole, or terbinafine. Oral griseofulvin (A) is reserved for extensive disease,
resistant cases, or Tinea capitis. Mupirocin (B) and cephalexin (D) are antibacterial agents and
are not effective against fungal infections.
4. A newborn is noted to have a blanching, pink macular stain on the glabella and upper eyelids.
The parents report it becomes more prominent when the baby cries. What is the most appropriate
management?
a. Referral to dermatology for pulse-dye laser therapy
b. Reassurance and monitoring for spontaneous resolution
c. MRI of the head to rule out Sturge-Weber syndrome
d. Initiation of oral Propranolol
Answer: B
Explanation: This describes a salmon patch (nevus simplex), a common, benign capillary
vascular malformation. These lesions typically fade significantly over the first few years of life,
with eyelid lesions fading first. No intervention is necessary. Laser therapy (A) and propranolol
(D) are treatments for more significant vascular lesions like port-wine stains or infantile
hemangiomas. An MRI (C) is not indicated for a classic salmon patch.
Pediatric Nurse Certification
Description:
Ready to conquer the Certified Pediatric Nurse Practitioner (CPNP®) exam? Our 2026 CPNP®
practice test is meticulously crafted with the latest PNCB guidelines in mind. This targeted
review features challenging, scenario-based pediatric board review questions that mirror the
actual exam's format and content. We cover all essential domains, from pediatric infectious
disease management and child development milestones to complex pediatric cardiology and
adolescent medicine.
Stop wasting time with outdated materials. Our questions include detailed rationales and
explanations for every answer, transforming your study time into an effective learning session.
Whether you're a recent graduate or an experienced nurse advancing your career, this is the
ultimate tool to identify your weak spots and build unshakable confidence.
Don't just hope to pass—guarantee your success. Download your free sample questions and start
studying smarter today!
, 2026 PNCB CPNP® Exam Practice Questions & Answers
Instructions: Please select the single best answer for each of the following questions.
Section 1: Infectious Diseases & Dermatology
1. A 3-year-old child presents with acute onset of a "barky" cough, hoarseness, and inspiratory
stridor. Symptoms began abruptly in the evening after two days of mild rhinorrhea. What is the
most appropriate initial management for this patient?
a. Oral Amoxicillin
b. Nebulized racemic epinephrine
c. A single dose of oral Dexamethasone
d. Inhaled Albuterol
Answer: C
Explanation: The clinical picture is classic for viral croup (laryngotracheitis). Current guidelines
recommend corticosteroids for all children with croup, regardless of severity, as they lessen the
severity and duration of symptoms. Oral dexamethasone is effective and preferred for mild to
moderate cases. Nebulized epinephrine (B) is reserved for moderate to severe cases with stridor
at rest. Antibiotics (A) are not indicated for this viral illness, and albuterol (D) is used for
bronchospasm in asthma, not for upper airway edema.
2. A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever up to 103°F, and
today developed a diffuse, blanching, pinkish-red maculopapular rash. The child appears well
and is playing in the examination room. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Measles (Rubeola)
b. Roseola (Exanthem Subitum)
c. Scarlet Fever
d. Rubella
Answer: B
Explanation: The presentation of high fever for several days that resolves abruptly as a non-
pruritic rash appears is characteristic of Roseola, typically caused by Human Herpesvirus 6
(HHV-6). The child's well appearance despite the recent high fever is a key feature. Measles (A)
, presents with a prodrome of cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis, followed by Koplik spots. Scarlet
fever (C) presents with a sandpaper-like rash and often a strawberry tongue. Rubella (D)
typically presents with a rash concurrent with low-grade fever and prominent lymphadenopathy.
3. A 7-year-old child presents with a well-demarcated, erythematous, scaly plaque with a raised,
serpiginous border on the forearm. A KOH preparation of skin scrapings reveals hyphae. What is
the most appropriate first-line treatment?
a. Oral Griseofulvin
b. Topical Mupirocin
c. Topical Clotrimazole
d. Oral Cephalexin
Answer: C
Explanation: The description and positive KOH test confirm Tinea corporis (ringworm). First-
line treatment for limited, uncomplicated lesions is a topical antifungal agent such as
clotrimazole, miconazole, or terbinafine. Oral griseofulvin (A) is reserved for extensive disease,
resistant cases, or Tinea capitis. Mupirocin (B) and cephalexin (D) are antibacterial agents and
are not effective against fungal infections.
4. A newborn is noted to have a blanching, pink macular stain on the glabella and upper eyelids.
The parents report it becomes more prominent when the baby cries. What is the most appropriate
management?
a. Referral to dermatology for pulse-dye laser therapy
b. Reassurance and monitoring for spontaneous resolution
c. MRI of the head to rule out Sturge-Weber syndrome
d. Initiation of oral Propranolol
Answer: B
Explanation: This describes a salmon patch (nevus simplex), a common, benign capillary
vascular malformation. These lesions typically fade significantly over the first few years of life,
with eyelid lesions fading first. No intervention is necessary. Laser therapy (A) and propranolol
(D) are treatments for more significant vascular lesions like port-wine stains or infantile
hemangiomas. An MRI (C) is not indicated for a classic salmon patch.
