RNSG 1517 A Maternity Exam 5 – 60 Practice Questions
Latest 2026 Update | Detailed Q&A Format with Correct
Answers and Rationales
Introduction
This study guide provides 60 practice questions for RNSG 1517 A Maternity Exam 5.
Questions cover essential maternity nursing concepts including: ovulation and conception,
complications of pregnancy (preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, ectopic pregnancy), labor
and delivery, postpartum care, newborn assessment, and evidence-based nursing
interventions .
Each question includes the correct answer in bold and a detailed rationale to reinforce
understanding.
Question 1
A 35-year-old patient and her partner have been trying to conceive for 8 months. After
assessment, the doctor believes the patient may not be ovulating. What is the most likely
first step in treatment?
A. Advise the couple to continue trying until 12 months have passed
B. Laparoscopy to clear a fallopian tube blockage
C. Clomid to induce ovulation
D. In-vitro fertilization (IVF)
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) is a first-line ovulation induction agent for anovulatory infertility.
It works by blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, which increases the release of
gonadotropins (FSH and LH) to stimulate ovarian follicle development and ovulation. IVF
and laparoscopy are typically considered after other options have been exhausted .
Question 2
The nurse teaches a patient how to detect ovulation and suggests having intercourse the
day before and on the day of ovulation. Which patient need is the nurse addressing?
,A. The patient is researching methods of contraception
B. The patient is looking for methods to increase the probability of conception
C. The patient wants to prevent transmission of STDs
D. The patient needs advice on ways to prevent excessive menstrual bleeding
Timing intercourse around ovulation maximizes the chance of conception. Sperm can
survive up to 5 days in the female reproductive tract, making the day before and day of
ovulation the most fertile window .
Question 3
A patient is prescribed Clomid for ovulation induction. What risk should the client be
informed of prior to taking this medication?
A. Spontaneous abortion
B. Secondary amenorrhea
C. Neural tube defects
D. Multiple gestation (twins, etc.)
The risk of multiple gestation (particularly twins) is significantly increased with Clomid
therapy due to stimulation of multiple ovarian follicles. Patients must be informed of this
potential outcome before beginning treatment .
Question 4
A patient is 6 weeks pregnant. Obstetrical history: previous spontaneous abortion at 14
weeks; previous stillborn at 38 weeks. What is the GTPAL score?
A. 3-0-1-1-0
B. 3-1-0-1-0
C. 2-1-0-1-0
D. 2-0-0-1-1
GTPAL = Gravida (total pregnancies), Term (deliveries ≥37 weeks), Preterm (deliveries 20-
37 weeks), Abortions (<20 weeks), Living. Current pregnancy = Gravida 3. One term
delivery (38-week stillborn) = T=1. No preterm deliveries = P=0. One abortion (14-week
loss) = A=1. One living child = L=1 .
, Question 5
A woman at 24 weeks gestation tells the nurse she has been experiencing headaches,
vision changes, and swelling in her legs. What is the significance?
A. These are typical signs of normal pregnancy and should be documented
B. These can be indications of preeclampsia
C. These indicate dyspareunia
D. These are signs of supine hypotensive syndrome
New-onset headache, visual disturbances, and edema are classic signs of preeclampsia in
the second or third trimester and require immediate evaluation. These are NOT normal
pregnancy symptoms .
Question 6
What blood pressure reading indicates a suspicion of gestational hypertension?
A. 120/80 mmHg
B. 130/85 mmHg
C. 140/90 mmHg
D. 160/100 mmHg
Gestational hypertension is diagnosed when blood pressure reaches 140/90 mmHg or
higher after 20 weeks of gestation in a woman with previously normal blood pressure .
Question 7
Why is it important to assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) in a pregnant patient with high
blood pressure and neurological symptoms?
A. Assessing DTRs is unrelated to blood pressure issues in pregnancy
B. Assessing DTRs is only necessary after delivery
C. Assessing DTRs is primarily for monitoring fetal health
D. Assessing DTRs helps evaluate for signs of preeclampsia or neurological
complications
Hyperreflexia (brisk DTRs) is a sign of central nervous system irritability in severe
preeclampsia and can precede seizures (eclampsia). Assessing DTRs helps monitor for
progression of the disease .
Latest 2026 Update | Detailed Q&A Format with Correct
Answers and Rationales
Introduction
This study guide provides 60 practice questions for RNSG 1517 A Maternity Exam 5.
Questions cover essential maternity nursing concepts including: ovulation and conception,
complications of pregnancy (preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, ectopic pregnancy), labor
and delivery, postpartum care, newborn assessment, and evidence-based nursing
interventions .
Each question includes the correct answer in bold and a detailed rationale to reinforce
understanding.
Question 1
A 35-year-old patient and her partner have been trying to conceive for 8 months. After
assessment, the doctor believes the patient may not be ovulating. What is the most likely
first step in treatment?
A. Advise the couple to continue trying until 12 months have passed
B. Laparoscopy to clear a fallopian tube blockage
C. Clomid to induce ovulation
D. In-vitro fertilization (IVF)
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) is a first-line ovulation induction agent for anovulatory infertility.
It works by blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, which increases the release of
gonadotropins (FSH and LH) to stimulate ovarian follicle development and ovulation. IVF
and laparoscopy are typically considered after other options have been exhausted .
Question 2
The nurse teaches a patient how to detect ovulation and suggests having intercourse the
day before and on the day of ovulation. Which patient need is the nurse addressing?
,A. The patient is researching methods of contraception
B. The patient is looking for methods to increase the probability of conception
C. The patient wants to prevent transmission of STDs
D. The patient needs advice on ways to prevent excessive menstrual bleeding
Timing intercourse around ovulation maximizes the chance of conception. Sperm can
survive up to 5 days in the female reproductive tract, making the day before and day of
ovulation the most fertile window .
Question 3
A patient is prescribed Clomid for ovulation induction. What risk should the client be
informed of prior to taking this medication?
A. Spontaneous abortion
B. Secondary amenorrhea
C. Neural tube defects
D. Multiple gestation (twins, etc.)
The risk of multiple gestation (particularly twins) is significantly increased with Clomid
therapy due to stimulation of multiple ovarian follicles. Patients must be informed of this
potential outcome before beginning treatment .
Question 4
A patient is 6 weeks pregnant. Obstetrical history: previous spontaneous abortion at 14
weeks; previous stillborn at 38 weeks. What is the GTPAL score?
A. 3-0-1-1-0
B. 3-1-0-1-0
C. 2-1-0-1-0
D. 2-0-0-1-1
GTPAL = Gravida (total pregnancies), Term (deliveries ≥37 weeks), Preterm (deliveries 20-
37 weeks), Abortions (<20 weeks), Living. Current pregnancy = Gravida 3. One term
delivery (38-week stillborn) = T=1. No preterm deliveries = P=0. One abortion (14-week
loss) = A=1. One living child = L=1 .
, Question 5
A woman at 24 weeks gestation tells the nurse she has been experiencing headaches,
vision changes, and swelling in her legs. What is the significance?
A. These are typical signs of normal pregnancy and should be documented
B. These can be indications of preeclampsia
C. These indicate dyspareunia
D. These are signs of supine hypotensive syndrome
New-onset headache, visual disturbances, and edema are classic signs of preeclampsia in
the second or third trimester and require immediate evaluation. These are NOT normal
pregnancy symptoms .
Question 6
What blood pressure reading indicates a suspicion of gestational hypertension?
A. 120/80 mmHg
B. 130/85 mmHg
C. 140/90 mmHg
D. 160/100 mmHg
Gestational hypertension is diagnosed when blood pressure reaches 140/90 mmHg or
higher after 20 weeks of gestation in a woman with previously normal blood pressure .
Question 7
Why is it important to assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) in a pregnant patient with high
blood pressure and neurological symptoms?
A. Assessing DTRs is unrelated to blood pressure issues in pregnancy
B. Assessing DTRs is only necessary after delivery
C. Assessing DTRs is primarily for monitoring fetal health
D. Assessing DTRs helps evaluate for signs of preeclampsia or neurological
complications
Hyperreflexia (brisk DTRs) is a sign of central nervous system irritability in severe
preeclampsia and can precede seizures (eclampsia). Assessing DTRs helps monitor for
progression of the disease .
