ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR PRACTICE EXAM
2 (NCLEX STYLE) QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION LATEST
ATI Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam 2 (NCLEX Style)
Part 1: Management of Care and Prioritization
1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing four clients. Which client
should the nurse assess first?
A) A client with COPD and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
B) A client with chest pain who reports pain 4/10 and is waiting for an ECG
C) A client with abdominal pain and a temperature of 38.3°C (100.9°F)
D) A client with a leg fracture who is asking for pain medication
Correct Answer: A) A client with COPD and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
Explanation: A client with SpO2 of 88% is hypoxemic and requires immediate
intervention to prevent respiratory failure. The ABC (Airway, Breathing,
Circulation) framework guides prioritization; oxygenation is a breathing priority
before chest pain evaluation or other stable clients . While chest pain is serious,
the client reporting pain 4/10 is not in immediate distress compared to the
hypoxemic client.
,2. A charge nurse is teaching newly licensed nurses about the correct use of
restraints. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) Place a belt restraint on a school-age child who has seizures
B) Secure wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent
C) Apply elbow immobilizers for an infant receiving cleft lip repair
D) Keep the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated
Correct Answer: C) Apply elbow immobilizers for an infant receiving cleft lip
repair
Explanation: Elbow immobilizers prevent infants from touching surgical sites (cleft
lip/palate repair). Restraints should never be secured to bed rails (risk of
entrapment); belt restraints are contraindicated for seizure clients; side rails
elevated on cribs is standard but not a restraint .
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings.
Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
A) Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before each feeding
B) Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30-45 degrees
C) Check the residual volume every 2 hours
D) Change the feeding bag every 72 hours
Correct Answer: B) Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30-45 degrees
Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed reduces the risk of regurgitation and
aspiration . While checking residual volumes and flushing are important, head
elevation is the most critical intervention for aspiration prevention.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports shortness of
breath when ambulating. The client's oxygen saturation is 90% on room air.
Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
,A) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min
B) Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Check the client's blood pressure
Correct Answer: B) Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
Explanation: High-Fowler's position maximizes lung expansion and reduces venous
return, improving oxygenation. This is a non-invasive, immediate intervention that
does not require a provider order. Oxygen may be added later, but positioning is
first. Notifying the provider or checking BP delays relief .
5. A nurse is performing medication reconciliation for a newly admitted client.
Which action should the nurse take?
A) Compare a list of common medications to actual prescriptions
B) Compare the prescription to the allergy history
C) Compare medication label to provider's prescription on three occasions
D) Compare the client's home medications to admission prescriptions
Correct Answer: D) Compare the client's home medications to admission
prescriptions
Explanation: Medication reconciliation involves comparing home medications to
admission prescriptions to identify discrepancies, prevent errors, and ensure
continuity of care .
6. A nurse is participating in a disaster drill. Which client should be tagged as
"immediate" (red tag)?
A) A client with a minor laceration and stable vital signs
B) A client with an open femur fracture and weak pulse
C) A client with a head injury who is not breathing
D) A client with a sprained ankle who is walking
, Correct Answer: B) A client with an open femur fracture and weak pulse
Explanation: Red tag clients have life-threatening injuries but are salvageable with
immediate treatment. An open femur fracture with weak pulse indicates possible
hemorrhage and shock. Non-breathing clients are black tag; minor injuries are
green tag .
7. A nurse is preparing an in-service program about delegation. Which of the
following elements should the nurse identify when presenting the five rights of
delegation? (Select all that apply)
A) Right client
B) Right supervision/evaluation
C) Right direction/communication
D) Right time
E) Right circumstances
Correct Answer: B, C, E
Explanation: The five rights of delegation are: Right Task, Right Circumstances,
Right Person, Right Direction/Communication, and Right Supervision/Evaluation.
"Right client" and "Right time" are not part of the delegation framework .
8. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the
shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?
A) Assisting a client who is 24 hr postop to use an incentive spirometer
B) Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the
previous shift
C) Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia
D) Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump
Correct Answer: D) Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump
2 (NCLEX STYLE) QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION LATEST
ATI Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam 2 (NCLEX Style)
Part 1: Management of Care and Prioritization
1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing four clients. Which client
should the nurse assess first?
A) A client with COPD and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
B) A client with chest pain who reports pain 4/10 and is waiting for an ECG
C) A client with abdominal pain and a temperature of 38.3°C (100.9°F)
D) A client with a leg fracture who is asking for pain medication
Correct Answer: A) A client with COPD and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
Explanation: A client with SpO2 of 88% is hypoxemic and requires immediate
intervention to prevent respiratory failure. The ABC (Airway, Breathing,
Circulation) framework guides prioritization; oxygenation is a breathing priority
before chest pain evaluation or other stable clients . While chest pain is serious,
the client reporting pain 4/10 is not in immediate distress compared to the
hypoxemic client.
,2. A charge nurse is teaching newly licensed nurses about the correct use of
restraints. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) Place a belt restraint on a school-age child who has seizures
B) Secure wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent
C) Apply elbow immobilizers for an infant receiving cleft lip repair
D) Keep the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated
Correct Answer: C) Apply elbow immobilizers for an infant receiving cleft lip
repair
Explanation: Elbow immobilizers prevent infants from touching surgical sites (cleft
lip/palate repair). Restraints should never be secured to bed rails (risk of
entrapment); belt restraints are contraindicated for seizure clients; side rails
elevated on cribs is standard but not a restraint .
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings.
Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
A) Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before each feeding
B) Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30-45 degrees
C) Check the residual volume every 2 hours
D) Change the feeding bag every 72 hours
Correct Answer: B) Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30-45 degrees
Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed reduces the risk of regurgitation and
aspiration . While checking residual volumes and flushing are important, head
elevation is the most critical intervention for aspiration prevention.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports shortness of
breath when ambulating. The client's oxygen saturation is 90% on room air.
Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
,A) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min
B) Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Check the client's blood pressure
Correct Answer: B) Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
Explanation: High-Fowler's position maximizes lung expansion and reduces venous
return, improving oxygenation. This is a non-invasive, immediate intervention that
does not require a provider order. Oxygen may be added later, but positioning is
first. Notifying the provider or checking BP delays relief .
5. A nurse is performing medication reconciliation for a newly admitted client.
Which action should the nurse take?
A) Compare a list of common medications to actual prescriptions
B) Compare the prescription to the allergy history
C) Compare medication label to provider's prescription on three occasions
D) Compare the client's home medications to admission prescriptions
Correct Answer: D) Compare the client's home medications to admission
prescriptions
Explanation: Medication reconciliation involves comparing home medications to
admission prescriptions to identify discrepancies, prevent errors, and ensure
continuity of care .
6. A nurse is participating in a disaster drill. Which client should be tagged as
"immediate" (red tag)?
A) A client with a minor laceration and stable vital signs
B) A client with an open femur fracture and weak pulse
C) A client with a head injury who is not breathing
D) A client with a sprained ankle who is walking
, Correct Answer: B) A client with an open femur fracture and weak pulse
Explanation: Red tag clients have life-threatening injuries but are salvageable with
immediate treatment. An open femur fracture with weak pulse indicates possible
hemorrhage and shock. Non-breathing clients are black tag; minor injuries are
green tag .
7. A nurse is preparing an in-service program about delegation. Which of the
following elements should the nurse identify when presenting the five rights of
delegation? (Select all that apply)
A) Right client
B) Right supervision/evaluation
C) Right direction/communication
D) Right time
E) Right circumstances
Correct Answer: B, C, E
Explanation: The five rights of delegation are: Right Task, Right Circumstances,
Right Person, Right Direction/Communication, and Right Supervision/Evaluation.
"Right client" and "Right time" are not part of the delegation framework .
8. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the
shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?
A) Assisting a client who is 24 hr postop to use an incentive spirometer
B) Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the
previous shift
C) Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia
D) Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump
Correct Answer: D) Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump
