APHY 102 Complete Final Review 2026: Study Sheets, Lab Components, and Test Strategies

Protein synthesis involves the following main process: a. tRNA molecules produce mRNA from ribosomes b. tRNA molecules bring amino acids to mRNA on the ribosome, and the amino acids join to form a polypeptide that folds c. DNA forms amino acids directly in the nucleus d. RNA destroys proteins and rebuilds them Rationale: Protein synthesis occurs when tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome where they align with mRNA codons to form a protein chain. DNA does not directly produce amino acids or proteins. Transcription is defined as a. The process of converting RNA to DNA b. The process of copying DNA information to produce RNA c. The process of assembling amino acids into proteins d. The repair of DNA errors after replication Rationale: Transcription forms RNA from a DNA template. Translation forms proteins. DNA→RNA, not RNA→DNA. Translation is the process in which a. DNA is copied into RNA b. mRNA codons are used to assemble amino acids into a polypeptide c. Proteins are broken down into amino acids d. DNA replicates before cell division Rationale: Translation converts the language of nucleic acids into amino acids (proteins) at the ribosome. Transcription involves DNA to RNA. Codons are a. Two-nucleotide sequences on DNA b. Sets of three nucleotides on mRNA that correspond to an amino acid c. Amino acids used to encode proteins d. Ribosomal enzymes that bind tRNA Rationale: Codons are triplets on mRNA that specify amino acids. They are not proteins or enzymes. During DNA replication, the first event is a. Free nucleotides are degraded b. Hydrogen bonds between base pairs break, and strands unwind c. Amino acids join to form proteins d. tRNA synthesizes new DNA strands Rationale: Replication begins with unwinding DNA and breaking hydrogen bonds. tRNA is not involved in DNA replication. Mutations are best described as a. Changes in proteins caused by ATP b. Rare changes in DNA sequences that may affect appearance or function c. Chemical breakdown of RNA only d. Always harmful to the organism Rationale: Mutations are rare changes in DNA sequence. They may be harmless, beneficial, or harmful. A tissue is defined as a. A group of organs performing the same function b. Layers or groups of similar cells with a common function c. A protein that supports bone d. A single isolated cell performing all body functions Rationale: A tissue is a group of similar cells working together. Organs are made of tissues. Which of the following is NOT one of the four main tissue types? a. Epithelial b. Muscle c. Adipose d. Nervous Rationale: Adipose is a type of connective tissue, not a main category. The four primary types are epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous. Epithelial tissues are generally classified based on a. Function only b. The type of protein they secrete c. Cell shape and number of layers d. Blood supply and hormone levels Rationale: Epithelia are named by shape (squamous, cuboidal, columnar) and layers (simple, stratified). Glandular epithelium is best described as a. Bone tissue that stores calcium b. A single cell or group of cells that secrete substances into ducts or body fluids c. Tissue that supports and binds organs d. Muscle fibers that help secrete hormones Rationale: Glandular epithelium produces and releases substances. Connective tissue supports; muscle tissue contracts. A hypertonic solution causes a cell to a. Gain water and swell b. Lose water and shrink (plasmolyze) c. Maintain the same water balance d. Divide rapidly to prevent damage Rationale: In a hypertonic solution, water moves out of the cell due to higher solute concentration outside. This causes the cell to shrink. Hypotonic would cause swelling. During which phase of the cell cycle do chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Telophase d. Interphase Rationale: Metaphase is when chromosomes align at the cell’s middle. Prophase is condensation, anaphase is separation, telophase is reformation of nuclei. Which process involves building larger molecules from smaller ones using energy? a. Catabolism b. Anabolism c. Hydrolysis d. Fermentation Rationale: Anabolism builds complex molecules using ATP. Catabolism breaks molecules down and releases energy. What happens when an enzyme and its substrate bind? a. The enzyme is permanently destroyed in the process b. An enzyme-substrate complex forms, allowing the substrate to be converted to product c. ATP is produced automatically d. The substrate becomes an enzyme Rationale: Enzyme + substrate = complex → product formation. Enzymes are not destroyed or turned into substrates. The active site of an enzyme is the region where a. ATP is stored b. The substrate binds and a chemical reaction occurs c. Enzymes are created d. DNA replication begins Rationale: The active site binds the substrate and facilitates conversion to products. Denaturation of an enzyme involves a. Increasing enzyme efficiency b. Alteration of enzyme shape by heat, acid, or other stress, causing loss of function c. Addition of amino acids to the enzyme d. Conversion of protein to DNA Rationale: Denaturation disrupts enzyme structure, destroying its active site. It does not enhance function. What is ATP primarily used for in cells? a. DNA replication b. Providing immediate energy for cellular processes c. Producing oxygen d. Transporting genetic information Rationale: ATP is the main energy currency of the cell used for active transport, synthesis, and movement. Aerobic respiration produces approximately how many ATP molecules from one glucose? a. 2 ATP b. About 36 ATP c. 100 ATP d. No ATP Rationale: Aerobic respiration produces about 36 ATP per glucose, while anaerobic respiration produces only 2 ATP. The first stage of cellular respiration is a. Electron transport chain b. Glycolysis c. Krebs (citric acid) cycle d. Fermentation Rationale: Glycolysis occurs first in the cytoplasm and breaks glucose into pyruvate. Glycolysis ends with the production of a. CO₂ and water b. 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 NADH c. 36 ATP and oxygen d. Amino acids and lipids Rationale: Glycolysis yields 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 NADH molecules from glucose. The primary function of pulmonary surfactant is to a. Increase oxygen levels in blood b. Reduce surface tension within alveoli to prevent collapse c. Stimulate ciliary movement d. Increase mucus production Rationale: Surfactant decreases surface tension in alveoli, keeping them open. Without it, alveoli would collapse (atelectasis). What triggers the urge to breathe? a. Low oxygen levels in muscles b. Increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood c. Decreased blood sugar d. High nitrogen concentration Rationale: CO₂ increase lowers blood pH, stimulating respiratory centers to initiate breathing. Which hormone increases water reabsorption in the kidneys? a. Insulin b. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c. Calcitonin d. Epinephrine Rationale: ADH makes the distal tubules and collecting ducts more permeable to water, reducing urine volume. Which structure connects the kidney to the urinary bladder? a. Urethra b. Nephron c. Ureter d. Renal vein Rationale: The ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. Most nutrient absorption in the nephron occurs in the a. Collecting duct b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Loop of Henle d. Distal convoluted tubule Rationale: The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs glucose, amino acids, sodium, and water. Which of the following initiates menstruation? a. Increase in progesterone b. Increase in estrogen c. Decrease in estrogen and progesterone levels d. Surge in LH Rationale: Falling estrogen and progesterone levels cause the uterine lining to shed. Which part of the male reproductive system stores sperm until they mature? a. Seminal vesicles b. Epididymis c. Prostate gland d. Vas deferens Rationale: Sperm mature and are stored in the epididymis. Inspiration (inhalation) occurs when a. The diaphragm relaxes b. The diaphragm contracts and moves downward c. Lung pressure rises above atmospheric pressure d. Thoracic cavity volume decreases Rationale: Diaphragm contraction increases thoracic volume, lowering pressure so air flows into lungs. Which of the following is a function of the pancreas in digestion? a. Stores bile b. Produces intrinsic factor c. Secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate into the duodenum d. Absorbs nutrients into blood Rationale: The pancreas releases enzymes (amylase, lipase, proteases) and bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid. Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing? a. Vocal cords b. Epiglottis c. Uvula d. Diaphragm Rationale: The epiglottis folds over the larynx to block the airway during swallowing