NURS 6670 Midterm EXAM 2021.

This is an all-inclusive guide to NURS 6670 Midterm EXAM. Sally is a 54-year-old female who presents for care at the urging of her employer. She says that she doesn’t think she needs to be there, but the manager of her division at work strongly suggested that she make an appointment. She is the evening shift manager in the accounting department of a major online sales organization. Her role requires meticulous accountability of a complex system of production statistics, and she has done this exceedingly well for years. She has been a valued employee, and her work is above reproach. A few months ago, the company adopted a new software program that required a complete revamping of Sally’s department. She has not adapted well, and her resulting anxiety is almost prohibitive of functioning in her role. During her interview, Sally is very somber and serious, and is clearly having difficulty with this change. She is distraught over the potential of not being able to do her job well and meet her immediate supervisor’s expectations. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the PMHNP knows that Sally is likely to respond best to: Selected Answer: [None Given] Answers: Pharmacotherapy with clonazepam Free-association, nondirective therapy Interpersonal therapy Serotonergic agents Response Feedback : (b) is the correct answer. These patients often recognize that there is a problem and will do well with this form of therapy, although it is a long and complex process. Clonazepam and serotonergic agents are effective with obsessive-compulsive disorder, but their utility with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is less clear. Interpersonal therapy is not among the therapeutic modalities with any demonstrated success with this personality disorder. ● Question 2 1 out of 1 points Becci is a 31-year-old female who presents to the PMHNP for evaluation after being referred by her friend who is a patient of the practice. She describes a relatively acute, recent onset of panic attacks. Becci says that “out of the blue” her heart starts to race, her mouth gets dry, she gets shaky, and feels like she cannot get her breath. She is afraid because her friend has panic disorder and Becci knows that before her friend got treatment, she basically would not leave the house in case an attack happened. The PMHNP recognizes that the immediate priority in assessment for Becci is: Selected Answer: A thorough physical examination Answers: A thorough physical examination A family history of mental health disease A urine drug screen An assessment for phobic disorder Response Feedback : (a) is the correct answer. While these are elements of a panic attack, there are a variety of organic conditions that can cause these symptoms. Becci needs a physical examination and appropriate laboratory assessment to rule out physiologic causes of her symptoms, such as thyroid disease. The remaining elements above will all be part of the mental health assessment once physical health is determined. ● Question 3 0 out of 1 points Mrs. Bowen is a 33-year-old female who presents as a new patient requesting medication for depression. She reports a long history of mood disorders on and off going back to adolescence. She is very articulate in describing her history and reports that neither sertraline nor fluoxetine “worked for her.” She was unable to remember the dose or how long she took the medication. With respect to considering Mrs. Bowen’s medication history, the PMHNP knows that: Selected Answer: Some forms of recurrent depression are best managed with nonpharmacologic strategies Answers: An SNRI will likely be the most appropriate choice if pharmacotherapy is indicated for this episode This may be an inaccurate characterization, as depressed patients tend to overemphasize negatives In some circumstances patients will purposefully mischaracterize the efficacy of medications they feel were ineffective Some forms of recurrent depression are best managed with nonpharmacologic strategies Respons e Feedback : (b) is the correct answer. A common mistake among clinicians is to accept the depressed patient’s self-report of medication accuracy. Depressed patients frequently overemphasize the negative and minimize the positive and may genuinely have a misimpression of their medications effectiveness; similarly, unrealistic expectations may skew their impression of medication response. An SNRI may ultimately be the most appropriate choice, but the PMHNP should not base this primarily on the patient’s self-report of SSRI response. This should not be perceived as a purposeful mischaracterization – the patients are not usually trying to misrepresent thing; they are reporting their genuine impression. Finally, recurrent depressions spanning decades will most likely require pharmacotherapy along with some form of nonpharmacologic intervention for best outcomes. ● Question 4 1 out of 1 points Danielle is a 31-year-old female who is having a psychiatric evaluation at the insistence of her husband. They have been married for 4 years, and her husband has finally become so frustrated by her jealous behavior that he threatened to leave her if she didn’t “get help.” Her husband insists that he has never been unfaithful, but Danielle repeatedly accuses him of having an affair. If he is even a few minutes late getting home from work, she demands an explanation and then does not believe anything he says. She does not have any real friends—her sister is her closest social contact, but Danielle has been angry with her for several weeks and won’t answer phone calls. Reportedly she does this often, and according to her husband can “hold a grudge forever.” During the interview, Danielle is calm, responsive, but distant. She says she really doesn’t understand why she is there—there is not a problem. The PMHNP considers the most likely diagnosis and discusses with Danielle that the treatment of choice is: Selected Answer: Psychother apy Answers: Diazepam Pimozide Psychother apy Group therapy Response Feedback : (c) is the correct answer. Danielle’s symptoms and history are consistent with paranoid personality disorder. Psychotherapy is the treatment of choice for this condition. These patients often do not do well in group therapy as a rule, although for some it can increase social skills. Pharmacotherapy is not a primary mechanism of treatment, but when comorbid agitation and anxiety occur, diazepam may be used. In some patients with quasidelusional thinking, pimozide has been helpful. ● Question 5 1 out of 1 points A 22-year-old male patient is started on sertraline 50 mg p.o. daily after presenting with a major depressive episode. After tolerating without difficulty for 2 weeks, his dose is increased to 100 mg p.o. daily. Approximately 4 weeks later he reports an unusual set of new symptoms for the last week and a half. He says he feels “amped up” and just very generally agitated and nervous. He was shorttempered at work and home and was snapping at people for no good reason. He also reports difficulty concentrating at work. Last week he expressed disproportionate anger at his work and his boss told him that he was bipolar and should be put on medication. The PMHNP discusses with the patient that: Selected Answer: When symptoms are preceded by antidepressant therapy, a diagnosis of bipolar does not apply Answers: When symptoms are preceded by antidepressant therapy, a diagnosis of bipolar does not apply His symptoms may be consistent with bipolar disorder if they persist for at least 2 weeks A formal assessment of the social and occupational implications of his symptoms should be performed The symptoms are most likely a physiologic adaptation to the sertraline and most often normalize Response Feedback : (a) is the correct answer. Consistent with DSM-5 criteria, a manic episode that emerges in response to an antidepressant does not constitute bipolar disorder. If these symptoms occur beyond the natural washout period of the sertraline, then bipolar may be appropriate. Symptoms have occurred long enough, as diagnostic criteria require 1 week of symptoms most of the day. An assessment of social and occupation impact will be helpful, but as his boss has already commented, this appears possible. While there is a physiologic adaptation to sertraline, that does not include symptoms described here. ● Question 6 1 out of 1 points Darius is a 26-year-old male who presents for care as part of couple therapy with his wife, who is being seen for dependency issues. Darius himself seems very anxious to “do the right thing” and appears to want to please the therapist. During the evaluation, Darius is impeccably dressed, very formal in his presentation and interaction, and is watchful of time because he has an appointment after the interview and states several times that he cannot be late. The PMHNP considers that Darius may have obsessive compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). In differentiating this from obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), she explores his history further for: Selected Answer: Significant impairment at work Answers: A history of racing thoughts Difficulty interacting with others Extremely high expectations of self Significant impairment at work Response Feedback : (d) is the correct answer. OCD frequently leads to difficulty at work because the symptoms interfere with the patient’s ability to successfully complete the workday; conversely, patients with OCPD frequently are praised at work because of their devotion to perfectionism. Other differences include that persons with OCPD are usually impeccably dressed, know their thoughts and actions are unreasonable or inappropriate. Conversely, there are many similarities between the personality disorder and the anxiety disorder, and they include (a) through (c). ● Question 7 1 out of 1 points In documenting a mental status exam (MSE) for Janet, a 54-year-old female, the PMHNP notes that she is bradykinesic, has poverty of speech, is depressed, and appears flat. This includes all the following elements of physical examination except: