NURS 5461 ADULT GERONTOLOGY Final
Practice Exam with Complete Verified Questions
and Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales
Graded A+
Marty, a 51-year-old banker, has a hordeolum in his right eye. You suspect that
the offending organism is
A. herpes simplex virus.
B. Staphylococcus.
C. Candida albicans.
D. Escherichia coli. –
**Answer** B
A hordeolum (stye) is an abscess that may occur on the external or internal
margin of the eyelid. It is typically caused by Staphylococcus bacteria.
The nurse practitioner is seeing Millie, a 47-year-old year old school teacher,
who comes to the office with complaints of right-side jaw pain, a clicking and
popping sound with movement of her jaw, otalgia, and odontalgia. She had
dental work done approximately 6 months ago and says the symptoms started
after her dental procedure. Your diagnosis is temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
dysfunction. All of the following are nonpharmacological
therapy except
,A. starting a liquid diet and continuing it for 6 months.
B. applying heat to the affected area for 15 to 20 minutes up to 6 times per
day.
C. eating a soft diet to rest the muscles of mastication.
D. massaging of the masseter and the temporalis muscles. –
**Answer** A
A liquid diet for 6 months would not provide sufficient nutritional value to
the patient and may lead to other complications. A soft diet to rest the
muscles of mastication, applying heat to the affected
areas for 15 to 20 minutes four to six times a day, and massaging the
masseter and temporalis muscles are all recommended nonpharmacological
therapy for TMJ.
The trachea deviates toward the unaffected side in all of the following
conditions except
A. aortic aneurysm.
B. unilateral thyroid lobe enlargement.
C. large atelectasis.
D. pneumothorax –
,**Answer** C
The trachea deviates toward the unaffected side with an aortic aneurysm,
unilateral thyroid lobe enlargement, and pneumothorax. It deviates toward
the affected side with a large atelectasis or fibrosis.
When Jillian, age 16, asks you to explain the 20/50 vision in her right eye, you
respond,
A. "You can see at 20 feet with your left eye what most people can see at 50
feet."
B. "You can see at 20 feet with your right eye what most people can see at
50 feet."
C. "You can see at 50 feet with your right eye what most people can see at
20 feet."
D. "You can see at 50 feet with your left eye what most people can see at 20
feet." –
**Answer** B
An explanation of 20/50 vision in a client's right eye would be: "You can see
at 20 ft with your right eye what most people can see at 50 ft." Normal
visual acuity is 20/20 on a Snellen eye chart. The
larger the denominator, the poorer the vision. If vision is greater than
20/30, refer the client to an ophthalmologist or optometrist.
, Clinical presentation of a client with peritonsillar abscess includes
A. occipital lymphadenopathy.
B. muffled "hot potato" voice.
C. congested cough.
D. abdominal pain. - **Answer** B
Symptoms of a peritonsillar abscess include infection in one or both tonsils,
fever or chills, difficulty opening the mouth fully, difficulty swallowing,
drooling, headache, muffled "hot potato" voice, sore
throat, and foul-smelling breath. The other answer options are not
symptoms of peritonsillar abscess.
Which of the following warts appears cauliflower-like and is usually found in
the anogenital region?
A. Plantar warts
B. Filiform and digitate warts
C. Condyloma acuminata
D. Verruca plana - **Answer** C
Practice Exam with Complete Verified Questions
and Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales
Graded A+
Marty, a 51-year-old banker, has a hordeolum in his right eye. You suspect that
the offending organism is
A. herpes simplex virus.
B. Staphylococcus.
C. Candida albicans.
D. Escherichia coli. –
**Answer** B
A hordeolum (stye) is an abscess that may occur on the external or internal
margin of the eyelid. It is typically caused by Staphylococcus bacteria.
The nurse practitioner is seeing Millie, a 47-year-old year old school teacher,
who comes to the office with complaints of right-side jaw pain, a clicking and
popping sound with movement of her jaw, otalgia, and odontalgia. She had
dental work done approximately 6 months ago and says the symptoms started
after her dental procedure. Your diagnosis is temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
dysfunction. All of the following are nonpharmacological
therapy except
,A. starting a liquid diet and continuing it for 6 months.
B. applying heat to the affected area for 15 to 20 minutes up to 6 times per
day.
C. eating a soft diet to rest the muscles of mastication.
D. massaging of the masseter and the temporalis muscles. –
**Answer** A
A liquid diet for 6 months would not provide sufficient nutritional value to
the patient and may lead to other complications. A soft diet to rest the
muscles of mastication, applying heat to the affected
areas for 15 to 20 minutes four to six times a day, and massaging the
masseter and temporalis muscles are all recommended nonpharmacological
therapy for TMJ.
The trachea deviates toward the unaffected side in all of the following
conditions except
A. aortic aneurysm.
B. unilateral thyroid lobe enlargement.
C. large atelectasis.
D. pneumothorax –
,**Answer** C
The trachea deviates toward the unaffected side with an aortic aneurysm,
unilateral thyroid lobe enlargement, and pneumothorax. It deviates toward
the affected side with a large atelectasis or fibrosis.
When Jillian, age 16, asks you to explain the 20/50 vision in her right eye, you
respond,
A. "You can see at 20 feet with your left eye what most people can see at 50
feet."
B. "You can see at 20 feet with your right eye what most people can see at
50 feet."
C. "You can see at 50 feet with your right eye what most people can see at
20 feet."
D. "You can see at 50 feet with your left eye what most people can see at 20
feet." –
**Answer** B
An explanation of 20/50 vision in a client's right eye would be: "You can see
at 20 ft with your right eye what most people can see at 50 ft." Normal
visual acuity is 20/20 on a Snellen eye chart. The
larger the denominator, the poorer the vision. If vision is greater than
20/30, refer the client to an ophthalmologist or optometrist.
, Clinical presentation of a client with peritonsillar abscess includes
A. occipital lymphadenopathy.
B. muffled "hot potato" voice.
C. congested cough.
D. abdominal pain. - **Answer** B
Symptoms of a peritonsillar abscess include infection in one or both tonsils,
fever or chills, difficulty opening the mouth fully, difficulty swallowing,
drooling, headache, muffled "hot potato" voice, sore
throat, and foul-smelling breath. The other answer options are not
symptoms of peritonsillar abscess.
Which of the following warts appears cauliflower-like and is usually found in
the anogenital region?
A. Plantar warts
B. Filiform and digitate warts
C. Condyloma acuminata
D. Verruca plana - **Answer** C
