PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY PART I, II, & III (NURSING) RELIAS COMPLETE
(LATEST ): MOST COMPREHENSIVE QS & ANS - TO PASS THE EXAM, 100%
VERIFIED
1. Which federal agency enforces workplace safety standards such as bloodborne
pathogen training and PPE requirements for healthcare workers?
A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
C. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
Correct answer: B — OSHA.
Rationale: OSHA is the federal agency that creates and enforces workplace safety regulations
(including bloodborne pathogens, PPE, and required training). CDC issues guidance and
recommendations, but OSHA enforces workplace law.
2. What is the single most effective action to prevent transmission of pathogens in daily
care?
A. Wearing gloves for all tasks
B. Routine handwashing with soap and water
C. Using alcohol hand sanitizer only
D. Double-gloving for high-risk tasks
Correct answer: B — Routine handwashing with soap and water.
Rationale: Handwashing is the fundamental infection-prevention measure recommended for
before/after patient contact, after removing gloves, and after contact with bodily fluids. Alcohol
sanitizer is excellent in many situations but soap-and-water is required for visibly soiled hands
and some organisms.
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3. A patient with decision-making capacity refuses a recommended treatment. What
should the healthcare worker do first?
A. Continue treatment because it’s in the patient’s best interest
B. Attempt to coerce the patient until they consent
C. Respect the refusal, document it, and notify the nurse/physician
D. Call security to enforce treatment
Correct answer: C — Respect the refusal, document it, and notify the nurse/physician.
Rationale: Patients with capacity have the right to accept or refuse treatment. The correct action
is to respect autonomy, document the refusal per facility policy, and escalate to clinical staff for
any further assessment or conversation.
4. Which of these best describes HIPAA’s primary protection?
A. Protecting employee schedules from disclosure
B. Securing patients’ individually identifiable health information
C. Controlling hospital financial data
D. Regulating visitor access to units
Correct answer: B — Securing patients’ individually identifiable health information.
Rationale: HIPAA focuses on protecting the privacy and security of protected health information
(PHI). It governs how patient health data are used, disclosed, and safeguarded.
5. During a fire in a patient care area, which action follows the correct order in initial
response (RACE)?
A. Alarm, Rescue, Contain, Extinguish
B. Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish
C. Contain, Rescue, Alarm, Extinguish
D. Extinguish, Contain, Alarm, Rescue
Correct answer: B — Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish.
Rationale: RACE is the standard mnemonic: Rescue anyone in immediate danger, pull the
Alarm, Contain the fire by closing doors, then Extinguish if safe. The first priority is removing
people from harm.
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6. A healthcare worker receives a needle-stick injury from a patient’s blood. What is
the immediate first step?
A. Report at the end of the shift to the supervisor
B. Encourage bleeding by squeezing the wound then do nothing else
C. Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water and seek medical evaluation
D. Apply a tourniquet and wait
Correct answer: C — Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water and seek medical
evaluation.
Rationale: Immediate wound cleansing decreases risk; then report exposure right away for
assessment, baseline testing, and potential post-exposure prophylaxis. Delaying reporting or
harmful first-aid measures is incorrect.
7. Which statement most accurately describes an advance directive?
A. A legal document that lists billing contacts
B. A patient’s written instructions about future medical care if they lose capacity
C. A staff-only document about clinical protocols
D. A consent form for each hospital admission
Correct answer: B — A patient’s written instructions about future medical care if they lose
capacity.
Rationale: An advance directive (living will, durable power of attorney for healthcare)
documents a patient’s preferences for future care and designates decision-makers if they cannot
speak for themselves.
8. Standard precautions in healthcare are intended to be used for which patients?
A. Only patients known to be immunocompromised
B. Only patients with confirmed infectious diseases
C. All patients, regardless of diagnosis
D. Only patients in isolation rooms
Correct answer: C — All patients, regardless of diagnosis.
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Rationale: Standard precautions are applied to every patient encounter because any patient could
potentially carry transmissible pathogens; they include hand hygiene, PPE as needed, and safe
handling of sharps.
9. Which practice most effectively reduces medication errors at the point of
administration?
A. Relying on verbal orders without verification
B. Skipping barcode scanning when busy
C. Following the Five Rights: right patient, drug, dose, route, time
D. Assuming the patient’s family knows the meds
Correct answer: C — Following the Five Rights: right patient, drug, dose, route, time.
Rationale: The Five Rights are a fundamental safety check for medication administration. Other
measures (barcode scanning, double checks) augment safety, but abandoning these checks
increases error risk.
10. What is the primary purpose of filing an incident report after a patient fall or near-
miss?
A. Assign blame to the staff involved
B. Create documentation to use for disciplinary action
C. Identify system issues and prevent future incidents
D. Record patient satisfaction scores
Correct answer: C — Identify system issues and prevent future incidents.
Rationale: Incident reports are used for quality improvement and risk reduction—helping
identify patterns, training needs, or systemic fixes—not to punish staff.
11. When entering a patient room requiring contact precautions, which PPE item is
mandatory before touching the environment?
A. Surgical mask
B. Gown and gloves