CERTIFIED ASSOCIATE IN PROJECT
MANAGEMENT (CAPM) EXAMINATION
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Q1. A project is defined as:
A. An ongoing operational effort
B. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
C. A repetitive process with no defined end
D. Work without constraints
Answer: B
Rationale: Projects are temporary and unique, distinguishing them from
ongoing operations.
Q2. Which organizational structure gives the project manager the highest
authority?
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D
Rationale: Projectized structures place full authority with the project manager.
,Q3. The project charter is created during which process group?
A. Planning
B. Initiating
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: B
Rationale: The project charter formally authorizes the project and is part of the
Initiating process.
Q4. What is the main output of the Define Scope process?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Scope statement
D. Project charter
Answer: C
Rationale: The scope statement describes project boundaries, deliverables, and
acceptance criteria.
Q5. A WBS is used to:
A. Define risks
B. Break down work into manageable components
C. Create the budget
D. Build the project charter
Answer: B
Rationale: The WBS decomposes project deliverables into smaller, manageable
work packages.
Q6. Which estimate technique uses expert judgment and historical data?
,A. Bottom–up
B. Analogous
C. Parametric
D. Three–point
Answer: B
Rationale: Analogous estimating uses information from previous similar
projects.
Q7. What is the critical path?
A. The path with the most resources
B. The path with zero float
C. The costliest path
D. The path with the most activities
Answer: B
Rationale: The critical path is the sequence of activities with zero float; delays
delay the project.
Q8. Which document lists and describes project risks?
A. Risk register
B. Issue log
C. Change log
D. Requirements traceability matrix
Answer: A
Rationale: The risk register contains identified risks along with their
characteristics.
Q9. Communications management focuses on:
A. Managing stakeholder influence
B. Ensuring information is created, distributed, and stored properly
, C. Allocating resources
D. Tracking costs
Answer: B
Rationale: Communication planning ensures timely and appropriate information
flow.
Q10. Which contract type places the greatest risk on the seller?
A. Cost–plus fixed fee
B. Fixed–price
C. Time and materials
D. Cost–reimbursable
Answer: B
Rationale: Fixed-price contracts require the seller to deliver regardless of cost
overrun.
Q11. The project manager's role in stakeholder management is to:
A. Approve budgets
B. Manage stakeholder expectations
C. Approve scope changes
D. Create the business case
Answer: B
Rationale: PMs must understand and influence stakeholder expectations for
project success.
Q12. Which tool is used in qualitative risk analysis?
A. Monte Carlo simulation
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Expected monetary value
MANAGEMENT (CAPM) EXAMINATION
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Q1. A project is defined as:
A. An ongoing operational effort
B. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
C. A repetitive process with no defined end
D. Work without constraints
Answer: B
Rationale: Projects are temporary and unique, distinguishing them from
ongoing operations.
Q2. Which organizational structure gives the project manager the highest
authority?
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D
Rationale: Projectized structures place full authority with the project manager.
,Q3. The project charter is created during which process group?
A. Planning
B. Initiating
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: B
Rationale: The project charter formally authorizes the project and is part of the
Initiating process.
Q4. What is the main output of the Define Scope process?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Scope statement
D. Project charter
Answer: C
Rationale: The scope statement describes project boundaries, deliverables, and
acceptance criteria.
Q5. A WBS is used to:
A. Define risks
B. Break down work into manageable components
C. Create the budget
D. Build the project charter
Answer: B
Rationale: The WBS decomposes project deliverables into smaller, manageable
work packages.
Q6. Which estimate technique uses expert judgment and historical data?
,A. Bottom–up
B. Analogous
C. Parametric
D. Three–point
Answer: B
Rationale: Analogous estimating uses information from previous similar
projects.
Q7. What is the critical path?
A. The path with the most resources
B. The path with zero float
C. The costliest path
D. The path with the most activities
Answer: B
Rationale: The critical path is the sequence of activities with zero float; delays
delay the project.
Q8. Which document lists and describes project risks?
A. Risk register
B. Issue log
C. Change log
D. Requirements traceability matrix
Answer: A
Rationale: The risk register contains identified risks along with their
characteristics.
Q9. Communications management focuses on:
A. Managing stakeholder influence
B. Ensuring information is created, distributed, and stored properly
, C. Allocating resources
D. Tracking costs
Answer: B
Rationale: Communication planning ensures timely and appropriate information
flow.
Q10. Which contract type places the greatest risk on the seller?
A. Cost–plus fixed fee
B. Fixed–price
C. Time and materials
D. Cost–reimbursable
Answer: B
Rationale: Fixed-price contracts require the seller to deliver regardless of cost
overrun.
Q11. The project manager's role in stakeholder management is to:
A. Approve budgets
B. Manage stakeholder expectations
C. Approve scope changes
D. Create the business case
Answer: B
Rationale: PMs must understand and influence stakeholder expectations for
project success.
Q12. Which tool is used in qualitative risk analysis?
A. Monte Carlo simulation
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Expected monetary value
