CJE READINESS BENCHMARK EXAM BUNDLE
STUDY GUIDE 2026 – COMPLETE CONCEPT
REVIEW & PRACTICE MATERIALS (LATEST
EDITION)
I. Criminal Law & Substantive Offenses
1. The mental element of a crime, often termed mens rea, is best defined as:
A. The physical act of the crime.
B. The causal link between act and harm.
C. The guilty mind or criminal intent.
D. The attendant circumstances.
2. At common law, the specific intent crime of burglary required breaking and entering of a
dwelling:
A. During the daylight hours.
B. Of another person.
C. With the intent to commit a felony therein.
D. While the residents were present.
3. The felony murder rule typically holds that a death caused during the commission of a
dangerous felony is:
A. Manslaughter, as intent to kill is absent.
B. Murder, even without intent to kill.
C. Not a homicide if the death was accidental.
D. Dependent on the felon's negligence.
4. The legal test for insanity that asks whether the defendant could distinguish right from
wrong is the:
A. M’Naghten Rule.
B. Irresistible Impulse Test.
C. Durham Rule.
D. Model Penal Code Test.
5. A defendant who assists in the commission of a crime but is not present at the scene is
typically classified as a(n):
A. Principal in the first degree.
,B. Accessory before the fact.
C. Principal in the second degree.
D. Accessory after the fact.
6. The key distinction between larceny and false pretenses is that false pretenses involves:
A. Taking without consent (larceny) vs. obtaining title with consent through deception.
B. The use of force vs. stealth.
C. Tangible property vs. intangible services.
D. Intent to permanently borrow vs. keep.
7. Robbery is essentially a:
A. Larceny from a person.
B. Larceny from a person by force or threat of immediate force.
C. Burglary involving assault.
D. Theft occurring in a public place.
8. The crime of solicitation is complete when:
A. The requested crime is attempted.
B. The person solicited agrees to commit the crime.
C. The person solicited commits the crime.
D. The request to commit a crime is made, regardless of response.
9. Voluntary manslaughter most commonly requires:
A. Recklessness.
B. A heat of passion upon adequate provocation.
C. Extreme indifference to human life.
D. Negligence.
10. A defense that negates the actus reus of a crime is:
A. Insanity.
B. Duress.
C. Intoxication.
D. Physical impossibility.
II. Criminal Procedure & Constitutional Law
11. The primary purpose of the 4th Amendment is to protect citizens from:
A. Self-incrimination.
B. Unreasonable searches and seizures.
C. Cruel and unusual punishment.
D. Double jeopardy.
,12. An arrest, under the 4th Amendment, requires:
A. A warrant in all circumstances.
B. Probable cause to believe the person committed a crime.
C. Reasonable suspicion of criminal activity.
D. Mere suspicion.
13. The "exclusionary rule" mandates that evidence obtained in violation of the 4th
Amendment is generally:
A. Admissible with a warning to the jury.
B. Inadmissible in a criminal trial.
C. Admissible for impeachment only.
D. Subject to a fine against the officer.
14. Miranda warnings are required when there is both:
A. Arrest and fingerprinting.
B. Custody and interrogation.
C. A felony investigation and a suspect.
D. A search and a seizure.
15. The 6th Amendment right to counsel attaches at:
A. The moment of arrest.
B. The initiation of adversarial judicial proceedings (e.g., arraignment).
C. The start of trial.
D. Any police questioning.
16. A "Terry stop" or investigative detention is justified by:
A. Probable cause.
B. Reasonable articulable suspicion.
C. A hunch.
D. A preponderance of the evidence.
17. The "fruit of the poisonous tree" doctrine applies to:
A. Evidence directly derived from an illegal search or statement.
B. Physical evidence only.
C. Confessions given without an attorney.
D. Evidence found in plain view.
18. The Double Jeopardy clause prevents:
A. A civil suit after a criminal trial.
B. A second prosecution for the same offense after acquittal.
, C. Multiple charges from a single act.
D. Appeal by the prosecution.
19. The standard of proof required for a criminal conviction is:
A. Preponderance of the evidence.
B. Clear and convincing evidence.
C. Beyond a reasonable doubt.
D. Probable cause.
20. A grand jury's primary function is to:
A. Determine guilt or innocence.
B. Issue an indictment if there is probable cause.
C. Conduct trials for felonies.
D. Rule on the admissibility of evidence.
III. Rules of Evidence
21. Relevance is defined as evidence having any tendency to make a fact of consequence to
the action:
A. Certain.
B. More or less probable than it would be without the evidence.
C. Proven by a preponderance.
D. Emotional for the jury.
22. Character evidence of the defendant's prior bad acts is generally:
A. Admissible to show propensity to commit the crime charged.
B. Inadmissible to prove action in conformity therewith.
C. Always admissible if the acts are similar.
D. Admissible only in civil cases.
23. The "hearsay rule" excludes an out-of-court statement offered:
A. For any purpose.
B. To prove the truth of the matter asserted.
C. If it is written.
D. If the declarant is unavailable.
24. Which is not a recognized hearsay exception?
A. Excited utterance.
B. Present sense impression.
C. Business records.
D. Prior consistent statement (when offered generally to bolster credibility).
STUDY GUIDE 2026 – COMPLETE CONCEPT
REVIEW & PRACTICE MATERIALS (LATEST
EDITION)
I. Criminal Law & Substantive Offenses
1. The mental element of a crime, often termed mens rea, is best defined as:
A. The physical act of the crime.
B. The causal link between act and harm.
C. The guilty mind or criminal intent.
D. The attendant circumstances.
2. At common law, the specific intent crime of burglary required breaking and entering of a
dwelling:
A. During the daylight hours.
B. Of another person.
C. With the intent to commit a felony therein.
D. While the residents were present.
3. The felony murder rule typically holds that a death caused during the commission of a
dangerous felony is:
A. Manslaughter, as intent to kill is absent.
B. Murder, even without intent to kill.
C. Not a homicide if the death was accidental.
D. Dependent on the felon's negligence.
4. The legal test for insanity that asks whether the defendant could distinguish right from
wrong is the:
A. M’Naghten Rule.
B. Irresistible Impulse Test.
C. Durham Rule.
D. Model Penal Code Test.
5. A defendant who assists in the commission of a crime but is not present at the scene is
typically classified as a(n):
A. Principal in the first degree.
,B. Accessory before the fact.
C. Principal in the second degree.
D. Accessory after the fact.
6. The key distinction between larceny and false pretenses is that false pretenses involves:
A. Taking without consent (larceny) vs. obtaining title with consent through deception.
B. The use of force vs. stealth.
C. Tangible property vs. intangible services.
D. Intent to permanently borrow vs. keep.
7. Robbery is essentially a:
A. Larceny from a person.
B. Larceny from a person by force or threat of immediate force.
C. Burglary involving assault.
D. Theft occurring in a public place.
8. The crime of solicitation is complete when:
A. The requested crime is attempted.
B. The person solicited agrees to commit the crime.
C. The person solicited commits the crime.
D. The request to commit a crime is made, regardless of response.
9. Voluntary manslaughter most commonly requires:
A. Recklessness.
B. A heat of passion upon adequate provocation.
C. Extreme indifference to human life.
D. Negligence.
10. A defense that negates the actus reus of a crime is:
A. Insanity.
B. Duress.
C. Intoxication.
D. Physical impossibility.
II. Criminal Procedure & Constitutional Law
11. The primary purpose of the 4th Amendment is to protect citizens from:
A. Self-incrimination.
B. Unreasonable searches and seizures.
C. Cruel and unusual punishment.
D. Double jeopardy.
,12. An arrest, under the 4th Amendment, requires:
A. A warrant in all circumstances.
B. Probable cause to believe the person committed a crime.
C. Reasonable suspicion of criminal activity.
D. Mere suspicion.
13. The "exclusionary rule" mandates that evidence obtained in violation of the 4th
Amendment is generally:
A. Admissible with a warning to the jury.
B. Inadmissible in a criminal trial.
C. Admissible for impeachment only.
D. Subject to a fine against the officer.
14. Miranda warnings are required when there is both:
A. Arrest and fingerprinting.
B. Custody and interrogation.
C. A felony investigation and a suspect.
D. A search and a seizure.
15. The 6th Amendment right to counsel attaches at:
A. The moment of arrest.
B. The initiation of adversarial judicial proceedings (e.g., arraignment).
C. The start of trial.
D. Any police questioning.
16. A "Terry stop" or investigative detention is justified by:
A. Probable cause.
B. Reasonable articulable suspicion.
C. A hunch.
D. A preponderance of the evidence.
17. The "fruit of the poisonous tree" doctrine applies to:
A. Evidence directly derived from an illegal search or statement.
B. Physical evidence only.
C. Confessions given without an attorney.
D. Evidence found in plain view.
18. The Double Jeopardy clause prevents:
A. A civil suit after a criminal trial.
B. A second prosecution for the same offense after acquittal.
, C. Multiple charges from a single act.
D. Appeal by the prosecution.
19. The standard of proof required for a criminal conviction is:
A. Preponderance of the evidence.
B. Clear and convincing evidence.
C. Beyond a reasonable doubt.
D. Probable cause.
20. A grand jury's primary function is to:
A. Determine guilt or innocence.
B. Issue an indictment if there is probable cause.
C. Conduct trials for felonies.
D. Rule on the admissibility of evidence.
III. Rules of Evidence
21. Relevance is defined as evidence having any tendency to make a fact of consequence to
the action:
A. Certain.
B. More or less probable than it would be without the evidence.
C. Proven by a preponderance.
D. Emotional for the jury.
22. Character evidence of the defendant's prior bad acts is generally:
A. Admissible to show propensity to commit the crime charged.
B. Inadmissible to prove action in conformity therewith.
C. Always admissible if the acts are similar.
D. Admissible only in civil cases.
23. The "hearsay rule" excludes an out-of-court statement offered:
A. For any purpose.
B. To prove the truth of the matter asserted.
C. If it is written.
D. If the declarant is unavailable.
24. Which is not a recognized hearsay exception?
A. Excited utterance.
B. Present sense impression.
C. Business records.
D. Prior consistent statement (when offered generally to bolster credibility).
