MN Pesticide Applicator Exam 2025 |
(Multiple Choices) and (Rationales)
Question and Answers 100% Correct 2025
MN Pesticide Applicator Core Exam Study Guide (2025)
Category 1: Pesticide Label & Laws
1. The most important source of information for a pesticide applicator is the:
A. University of Minnesota Extension website.
B. Pesticide product label.
C. EPA website.
D. MDA enforcement manual.
Rationale: The label is the law. Using a pesticide in a manner inconsistent with its labeling is a
violation of federal law.
2. Which federal law governs the registration, sale, and use of pesticides in the United States?
A. Endangered Species Act (ESA)
B. Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA)
C. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)
D. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA)
Rationale: FIFRA is the primary federal statute governing pesticide regulation.
3. Under Minnesota state law, who must be physically present at the application site during a
pesticide application?
A. The commercial applicator or their authorized, competent, non-certified employee.
B. Only the certified commercial applicator themselves.
C. A person with a permit to purchase.
D. The property owner.
Rationale: MN law requires the certified applicator OR an authorized, competent person under
their direct supervision to be on-site.
4. The signal word “Danger-Poison” with a skull and crossbones on a label indicates what
category of toxicity?
A. Slightly toxic
B. Moderately toxic
,C. Highly toxic
D. Relatively non-toxic
Rationale: "Danger-Poison" and the skull and crossbones are used for Category I (highly toxic)
products based on oral, dermal, or inhalation toxicity.
5. The "Agricultural Use Requirements" box on a label indicates the pesticide is:
A. For agricultural use only.
B. Classified as a restricted-use pesticide (RUP).
C. Exempt from worker protection standards.
D. Highly volatile.
Rationale: The "Agricultural Use Requirements" box signifies the product is subject to the
Worker Protection Standard (WPS). This is a key indicator of an RUP, though not all WPS
pesticides are RUPs.
Category 2: Safety - Personal & Environmental
6. The most likely route of pesticide exposure for an applicator during a normal
mix/load/apply scenario is:
A. Oral ingestion.
B. Inhalation.
C. Ocular (eyes).
D. Dermal (skin).
Rationale: Dermal exposure accounts for over 90% of all pesticide exposures during handling.
7. Which Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) listed on the label is always
considered minimum required PPE?
A. The PPE worn during mixing and loading.
B. The PPE listed in the "Non-agricultural use requirements" section.
C. The PPE listed in the "Application-specific" sections.
D. The PPE listed in the "Precautionary Statements" for humans and domestic animals.
Rationale: The PPE listed in the "Precautionary Statements" section is the baseline, minimum
requirement for all handling activities unless a later section specifies more protective
equipment.
8. The purpose of a pesticide respirator's end-of-service-life indicator (ESLI) is to show:
A. When the filter is saturated and needs changing.
B. When the respirator seal is broken.
C. The expiration date of the respirator.
D. The concentration of pesticide in the air.
,Rationale: For pesticide vapors/gases, ESLIs (like a color change) indicate the chemical cartridge
is exhausted and must be replaced.
9. What is the first thing you should do if you get a concentrated pesticide formulation in your
eye?
A. Induce vomiting.
B. Flush the eye with clean water for 15 minutes.
C. Call 911 immediately.
D. Check the label for the statement of practical treatment.
Rationale: Immediate, copious flushing is critical to minimize tissue damage. Check the label for
specific instructions after initiating flushing.
10. Which statement about pesticide spills is correct?
A. Small spills (< 1 gallon) can be washed into a sanitary sewer.
B. The primary goal is to protect people and the environment by containing the spill.
C. Absorbent material from a spill can be placed in the regular trash.
D. Always use bleach to neutralize spilled pesticides.
Rationale: Containment is the first critical step to prevent spread and exposure. Follow MDA
and label spill cleanup procedures.
11. Which factor is most critical in determining the risk of groundwater contamination by a
pesticide?
A. The pesticide's price.
B. Soil texture and organic matter.
C. The applicator's certification number.
D. Time of day of application.
Rationale: Sandy soils with low organic matter offer the least adsorption and greatest leaching
potential, posing the highest risk.
12. To protect bees and other pollinators, an applicator should:
A. Only apply pesticides at night.
B. Follow all label pollinator protection statements and communicate with beekeepers.
C. Use only dust formulations.
D. Avoid spraying when winds exceed 10 mph.
Rationale: The label is legally binding. Many labels have specific pollinator protection language
regarding application timing (e.g., post-bloom) and communication requirements.
13. What is the primary purpose of a pesticide Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
A. To provide specific application rates for crops.
B. To provide detailed hazard and emergency response information for workers and emergency
, personnel.
C. To replace the need for the product label.
D. To certify the product's effectiveness.
Rationale: SDSs are designed for workplace safety, providing extensive information on
physical/chemical properties, toxicity, first aid, and handling procedures.
14. Which statement about confined-space pesticide applications (e.g., grain bins) is true?
A. A respirator is always sufficient protection.
B. Atmospheric monitoring for oxygen and gases is required before entry.
C. Only vapor-tight goggles are needed.
D. Two applicators must always be present.
Rationale: Confined spaces can have oxygen-deficient or toxic atmospheres. Monitoring is
essential prior to entry for safety.
15. Pesticide storage facilities should:
A. Be located near a wellhead for easy water access.
B. Be locked and posted with warning signs.
C. Have floor drains for easy cleanup.
D. Be heated to above 40°F at all times.
Rationale: Security (locked, posted) prevents unauthorized access, theft, and accidental
exposure.
Category 3: Pests & Pest Management
16. An organism is considered a pest when it:
A. Is an insect.
B. Competes with humans for resources or adversely affects human health or activities.
C. Is not native to Minnesota.
D. Is visible to the naked eye.
Rationale: This is the fundamental definition of a pest in integrated pest management (IPM).
17. The economic injury level (EIL) is defined as:
A. The cost of the pesticide application.
B. The pest population density that causes damage equal to the cost of control.
C. The point where a pest is first noticed.
D. The legal limit of pests allowed on a crop.
Rationale: EIL is a key IPM concept. It is the break-even point where the value of the damage
equals the cost of management.
(Multiple Choices) and (Rationales)
Question and Answers 100% Correct 2025
MN Pesticide Applicator Core Exam Study Guide (2025)
Category 1: Pesticide Label & Laws
1. The most important source of information for a pesticide applicator is the:
A. University of Minnesota Extension website.
B. Pesticide product label.
C. EPA website.
D. MDA enforcement manual.
Rationale: The label is the law. Using a pesticide in a manner inconsistent with its labeling is a
violation of federal law.
2. Which federal law governs the registration, sale, and use of pesticides in the United States?
A. Endangered Species Act (ESA)
B. Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA)
C. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)
D. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA)
Rationale: FIFRA is the primary federal statute governing pesticide regulation.
3. Under Minnesota state law, who must be physically present at the application site during a
pesticide application?
A. The commercial applicator or their authorized, competent, non-certified employee.
B. Only the certified commercial applicator themselves.
C. A person with a permit to purchase.
D. The property owner.
Rationale: MN law requires the certified applicator OR an authorized, competent person under
their direct supervision to be on-site.
4. The signal word “Danger-Poison” with a skull and crossbones on a label indicates what
category of toxicity?
A. Slightly toxic
B. Moderately toxic
,C. Highly toxic
D. Relatively non-toxic
Rationale: "Danger-Poison" and the skull and crossbones are used for Category I (highly toxic)
products based on oral, dermal, or inhalation toxicity.
5. The "Agricultural Use Requirements" box on a label indicates the pesticide is:
A. For agricultural use only.
B. Classified as a restricted-use pesticide (RUP).
C. Exempt from worker protection standards.
D. Highly volatile.
Rationale: The "Agricultural Use Requirements" box signifies the product is subject to the
Worker Protection Standard (WPS). This is a key indicator of an RUP, though not all WPS
pesticides are RUPs.
Category 2: Safety - Personal & Environmental
6. The most likely route of pesticide exposure for an applicator during a normal
mix/load/apply scenario is:
A. Oral ingestion.
B. Inhalation.
C. Ocular (eyes).
D. Dermal (skin).
Rationale: Dermal exposure accounts for over 90% of all pesticide exposures during handling.
7. Which Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) listed on the label is always
considered minimum required PPE?
A. The PPE worn during mixing and loading.
B. The PPE listed in the "Non-agricultural use requirements" section.
C. The PPE listed in the "Application-specific" sections.
D. The PPE listed in the "Precautionary Statements" for humans and domestic animals.
Rationale: The PPE listed in the "Precautionary Statements" section is the baseline, minimum
requirement for all handling activities unless a later section specifies more protective
equipment.
8. The purpose of a pesticide respirator's end-of-service-life indicator (ESLI) is to show:
A. When the filter is saturated and needs changing.
B. When the respirator seal is broken.
C. The expiration date of the respirator.
D. The concentration of pesticide in the air.
,Rationale: For pesticide vapors/gases, ESLIs (like a color change) indicate the chemical cartridge
is exhausted and must be replaced.
9. What is the first thing you should do if you get a concentrated pesticide formulation in your
eye?
A. Induce vomiting.
B. Flush the eye with clean water for 15 minutes.
C. Call 911 immediately.
D. Check the label for the statement of practical treatment.
Rationale: Immediate, copious flushing is critical to minimize tissue damage. Check the label for
specific instructions after initiating flushing.
10. Which statement about pesticide spills is correct?
A. Small spills (< 1 gallon) can be washed into a sanitary sewer.
B. The primary goal is to protect people and the environment by containing the spill.
C. Absorbent material from a spill can be placed in the regular trash.
D. Always use bleach to neutralize spilled pesticides.
Rationale: Containment is the first critical step to prevent spread and exposure. Follow MDA
and label spill cleanup procedures.
11. Which factor is most critical in determining the risk of groundwater contamination by a
pesticide?
A. The pesticide's price.
B. Soil texture and organic matter.
C. The applicator's certification number.
D. Time of day of application.
Rationale: Sandy soils with low organic matter offer the least adsorption and greatest leaching
potential, posing the highest risk.
12. To protect bees and other pollinators, an applicator should:
A. Only apply pesticides at night.
B. Follow all label pollinator protection statements and communicate with beekeepers.
C. Use only dust formulations.
D. Avoid spraying when winds exceed 10 mph.
Rationale: The label is legally binding. Many labels have specific pollinator protection language
regarding application timing (e.g., post-bloom) and communication requirements.
13. What is the primary purpose of a pesticide Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
A. To provide specific application rates for crops.
B. To provide detailed hazard and emergency response information for workers and emergency
, personnel.
C. To replace the need for the product label.
D. To certify the product's effectiveness.
Rationale: SDSs are designed for workplace safety, providing extensive information on
physical/chemical properties, toxicity, first aid, and handling procedures.
14. Which statement about confined-space pesticide applications (e.g., grain bins) is true?
A. A respirator is always sufficient protection.
B. Atmospheric monitoring for oxygen and gases is required before entry.
C. Only vapor-tight goggles are needed.
D. Two applicators must always be present.
Rationale: Confined spaces can have oxygen-deficient or toxic atmospheres. Monitoring is
essential prior to entry for safety.
15. Pesticide storage facilities should:
A. Be located near a wellhead for easy water access.
B. Be locked and posted with warning signs.
C. Have floor drains for easy cleanup.
D. Be heated to above 40°F at all times.
Rationale: Security (locked, posted) prevents unauthorized access, theft, and accidental
exposure.
Category 3: Pests & Pest Management
16. An organism is considered a pest when it:
A. Is an insect.
B. Competes with humans for resources or adversely affects human health or activities.
C. Is not native to Minnesota.
D. Is visible to the naked eye.
Rationale: This is the fundamental definition of a pest in integrated pest management (IPM).
17. The economic injury level (EIL) is defined as:
A. The cost of the pesticide application.
B. The pest population density that causes damage equal to the cost of control.
C. The point where a pest is first noticed.
D. The legal limit of pests allowed on a crop.
Rationale: EIL is a key IPM concept. It is the break-even point where the value of the damage
equals the cost of management.
