Exam Study Guide —
Comprehensive Course Review
Section 1: Fundamentals & Pharmacy Procedures
1. What is the study of how a drug moves through the body (ADME:
Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion)?
a) Pharmacodynamics
b) Pharmacotherapeutics
c) Pharmacokinetics
d) Pharmacy
2. What is the study of what a drug does to the body, including mechanisms
of action and effects?
a) Pharmacodynamics
b) Pharmacokinetics
c) Toxicology
d) Posology
3. The ratio of a drug's lethal dose to its therapeutic dose is its:
a) Efficacy
b) Potency
c) Therapeutic Index
d) Margin of Safety
4. Which law governs the dispensing of controlled substances in a veterinary
practice?
a) Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA)
b) Controlled Substances Act (CSA)
, c) Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD)
d) FDA-CVM Act
5. A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates a response is called a(n):
a) Antagonist
b) Agonist
c) Partial agonist
d) Synergist
6. What must be included on a veterinary prescription label? (Choose the
BEST answer)
a) Drug name, client name, date
b) Clinic name/address, client/patient name, drug name/strength,
directions, prescriber name, expiration date, cautionary statements
c) Drug name, quantity, and "use as directed"
d) Date, doctor's name, and DEA number
7. The first-pass effect primarily affects drugs administered by which route?
a) Intravenous
b) Subcutaneous
c) Intramuscular
d) Oral
8. What does the abbreviation "SID" stand for on a prescription?
a) Once daily
b) Once daily
c) Twice daily
d) As needed
9. Which schedule of controlled substances has the highest potential for
abuse and no accepted medical use?
a) Schedule II
b) Schedule I
c) Schedule III
d) Schedule IV
, 10.A drug's "extra-label use" is legally permitted under AMDUCA only when:
a) The client requests a cheaper alternative.
b) There is a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship (VCPR), for the
health of the animal, and specific conditions are met.
c) The drug is available over-the-counter.
d) For any reason the veterinarian sees fit.
Section 2: Antimicrobials
11.Penicillins and Cephalosporins are examples of which class of antibiotics?
a) Macrolides
b) Beta-Lactams
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) Tetracyclines
12.What is a common, potentially life-threatening adverse effect of many
beta-lactam antibiotics?
a) Ototoxicity
b) Hypersensitivity/allergic reaction
c) Crystaluria
d) Hepatotoxicity
13.Which class of antibiotics is associated with dose-dependent cartilage
abnormalities in young, growing animals?
a) Sulfonamides
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) Lincosamides
14.Aminoglycosides (e.g., Gentamicin) are notorious for which two toxicities?
a) Cardiotoxicity and neurotoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity and nephrotoxicity
c) Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
d) Retinopathy and arthropathy
, 15.Tetracyclines are contraindicated in young animals because they:
a) Cause juvenile cataracts.
b) Bind to developing teeth and bone, causing discoloration and
weakening.
c) Suppress bone marrow.
d) Induce acute renal failure.
16.The drug of choice for serious, deep-seated anaerobic infections (e.g., bite
wounds) is often:
a) Enrofloxacin
b) Clindamycin or Metronidazole
c) Amoxicillin
d) Doxycycline
17.Which antifungal agent, commonly used for systemic mycoses like
blastomycosis, has significant nephrotoxic potential?
a) Griseofulvin
b) Ketoconazole
c) Amphotericin B
d) Itraconazole
18.What is the primary mechanism of action of Trimethoprim-Sulfa
combinations?
a) Inhibit cell wall synthesis
b) Sequentially inhibit bacterial folic acid synthesis
c) Disrupt protein synthesis at the 50S ribosome
d) Inhibit DNA gyrase
19.Macrolide antibiotics (e.g., Erythromycin, Azithromycin) primarily affect:
a) Gram-negative bacteria only
b) Gram-positive bacteria and some atypicals
c) Anaerobes only
d) All of the above