FISDAP CARDIOLOGY — 100 QUESTION
REVIEW SET (UPDATED 2026)
(Correct answers marked with ✔️✔️)
1. Which cardiac valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle?
A. Aortic valve
B. Pulmonic valve
C. Tricuspid valve
D. Mitral valve
2. Which ECG change is most indicative of acute myocardial infarction?
A. ST elevation
B. T-wave flattening
C. U-wave inversion
D. Prolonged PR interval
3. What is the primary pacemaker of the heart?
A. AV node
B. Right bundle branch
C. SA node
D. Purkinje fibers
4. Which dysrhythmia has no identifiable P waves and irregular R-R intervals?
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Sinus arrhythmia
,5. What is the normal duration of the PR interval?
A. 0.28–0.32 sec
B. <0.08 sec
C. 0.08–0.12 sec
D. 0.12–0.20 sec
6. Which electrolyte abnormality most commonly causes peaked T waves?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypernatremia
7. The primary cause of cardiogenic shock is:
A. Widespread vasodilation
B. Fluid overload
C. Inadequate pump function
D. Severe dehydration
8. Which rhythm is defined by a rate >100 bpm with normal P waves?
A. Sinus bradycardia
B. Sinus tachycardia
C. SVT
D. Junctional tachycardia
9. Which medication is FIRST-line for symptomatic bradycardia?
A. Amiodarone
B. Atropine
C. Lidocaine
D. Adenosine
, 10. Defibrillation is appropriate for which rhythm?
A. Asystole
B. PEA
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Sinus arrest
11. Which leads view the lateral wall of the heart?
A. II, III, aVF
B. V1–V2
C. V3–V4
D. I, aVL, V5, V6
12. A wide, bizarre QRS with no P waves describes:
A. Atrial flutter
B. Junctional escape
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Wandering pacemaker
13. The best treatment for SVT with a stable patient is:
A. Immediate cardioversion
B. Adenosine
C. Magnesium
D. Lidocaine
14. Which artery supplies the anterior wall of the heart?
A. Left circumflex
B. Right coronary artery
C. Left anterior descending
D. Posterior descending artery
REVIEW SET (UPDATED 2026)
(Correct answers marked with ✔️✔️)
1. Which cardiac valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle?
A. Aortic valve
B. Pulmonic valve
C. Tricuspid valve
D. Mitral valve
2. Which ECG change is most indicative of acute myocardial infarction?
A. ST elevation
B. T-wave flattening
C. U-wave inversion
D. Prolonged PR interval
3. What is the primary pacemaker of the heart?
A. AV node
B. Right bundle branch
C. SA node
D. Purkinje fibers
4. Which dysrhythmia has no identifiable P waves and irregular R-R intervals?
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Sinus arrhythmia
,5. What is the normal duration of the PR interval?
A. 0.28–0.32 sec
B. <0.08 sec
C. 0.08–0.12 sec
D. 0.12–0.20 sec
6. Which electrolyte abnormality most commonly causes peaked T waves?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypernatremia
7. The primary cause of cardiogenic shock is:
A. Widespread vasodilation
B. Fluid overload
C. Inadequate pump function
D. Severe dehydration
8. Which rhythm is defined by a rate >100 bpm with normal P waves?
A. Sinus bradycardia
B. Sinus tachycardia
C. SVT
D. Junctional tachycardia
9. Which medication is FIRST-line for symptomatic bradycardia?
A. Amiodarone
B. Atropine
C. Lidocaine
D. Adenosine
, 10. Defibrillation is appropriate for which rhythm?
A. Asystole
B. PEA
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Sinus arrest
11. Which leads view the lateral wall of the heart?
A. II, III, aVF
B. V1–V2
C. V3–V4
D. I, aVL, V5, V6
12. A wide, bizarre QRS with no P waves describes:
A. Atrial flutter
B. Junctional escape
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Wandering pacemaker
13. The best treatment for SVT with a stable patient is:
A. Immediate cardioversion
B. Adenosine
C. Magnesium
D. Lidocaine
14. Which artery supplies the anterior wall of the heart?
A. Left circumflex
B. Right coronary artery
C. Left anterior descending
D. Posterior descending artery
