EMT FISDAP TRAUMA 2026 COMPREHENSIVE
STUDY REVIEW & PRACTICE OUTLINE || UPDATED
EMT FISDAP TRAUMA 2026: COMPREHENSIVE STUDY
REVIEW & PRACTICE OUTLINE
Section 1: Trauma System & Mechanism of Injury (Questions 1-15)
1. What is the primary goal of the trauma system?
A) To provide definitive surgical care at the scene
B) To deliver the right patient to the right facility in the right time
C) To allow EMTs to perform advanced procedures
D) To reduce the number of helicopters used
2. According to the CDC's guidelines for field triage of injured patients, which finding is a "Step
One" (Physiologic) criterion for transport to a trauma center?
A) Glasgow Coma Scale score < 14
B) Penetrating injury to the trunk
C) Systolic BP < 110 mmHg
D) GCS < 14, SBP < 90, or RR < 10 or >29
3. A 25-year-old male has fallen approximately 25 feet from a ladder. He is awake but
confused. This mechanism is considered:
A) A minimal trauma risk
B) A high-energy mechanism of injury
C) Significant only if a bone is protruding
D) Insignificant due to his age
4. Which of the following is considered a "Step Two" (Anatomic) criterion in trauma triage?
A) Age > 55
B) All pelvic fractures
C) Flail chest
D) Pedestrian struck at low speed (<5 mph)
5. The energy of a moving object is defined by its:
A) Mass and speed
B) Color and density
,C) Size and temperature
D) Volume and shape
6. Which law of motion explains why a passenger continues moving forward when a car
suddenly stops?
A) Law of Inertia
B) Law of Acceleration
C) Law of Action-Reaction
D) Law of Kinetics
7. During a frontal impact, the second collision is:
A) The vehicle against another object
B) The passenger against the interior of the vehicle
C) The internal organs against solid structures
D) The fuel tank rupturing
8. A "rollover" MVC carries a high index of suspicion for:
A) Isolated extremity fractures
B) Ejection and multiple-system trauma
C) Minor soft-tissue injuries only
D) Cardiac contusions exclusively
9. A helmeted motorcyclist who is thrown from his bike at high speed has a decreased risk of:
A) Spinal injury
B) Extremity fractures
C) Head injury
D) Internal bleeding
10. A pedestrian struck by a vehicle is most likely to sustain injuries to the:
A) Head and legs
B) Hands and arms
C) Pelvis and spine
D) Chest and abdomen
11. Which statement about gunshot wounds is MOST accurate?
A) Exit wounds are always larger than entry wounds.
B) The path of the bullet is always predictable in a straight line.
C) Cavitation can cause injury remote from the bullet's path.
D) Velocity is the only factor determining injury severity.
,12. The "Golden Hour" begins at what point?
A) When the patient arrives at the ED
B) When the patient is loaded into the ambulance
C) At the time of injury
D) When the first EMT arrives on scene
13. An 80-year-old female who slipped and fell from a standing position onto her hip. Her age
alone, given the mechanism, should:
A) Be disregarded; age is not a triage consideration.
B) Trigger consideration for trauma center evaluation under "Step Three" (Special
Considerations).
C) Mean she only needs evaluation for a hip fracture.
D) Lower the index of suspicion for serious injury.
14. What is the primary purpose of rapid trauma assessment?
A) To provide definitive care in the field
B) To identify and treat life-threatening injuries quickly
C) To obtain a detailed patient history
D) To delay transport for more thorough assessment
15. Which of the following BEST describes "index of suspicion"?
A) A diagnosis confirmed by assessment
B) Anticipating the types of injuries based on mechanism
C) The patient's suspicion of the EMT's abilities
D) A guess based on no evidence
Section 2: Scene Size-Up & BSI (Questions 16-20)
16. The first step in any call is:
A) Assessing the patient
B) Ensuring scene safety for yourself and your crew
C) Calling for additional resources
D) Grabbing the jump kit
17. You arrive at an MVC with wires down over the car. The patient is waving at you from
inside. Your FIRST action is to:
A) Put on gloves and approach the vehicle.
B) Tell the patient to get out of the car and walk to you.
, C) Stage at a safe distance and request the power company.
D) Use a non-conductive object to push the wires away.
18. How many sets of gloves should you generally have on an ambulance call?
A) One set for you and one for your partner
B) At least two sets per provider
C) Gloves are only needed for bleeding patients
D) One box
19. Standard Precautions are based on the principle that:
A) All patients are infected with bloodborne pathogens.
B) All blood and body fluids should be treated as potentially infectious.
C) Gloves are not needed if you don't see blood.
D) Only trauma patients pose an infection risk.
20. While sizing up a scene, you note an odd smell, dead insects/birds, and patients with
pinpoint pupils. You should:
A) Immediately begin patient assessment.
B) Suspect a hazardous material or nerve agent and not enter.
C) Assume it's a carbon monoxide leak and ventilate the area.
D) Ask the patients what they ingested.
Section 3: Primary Assessment / Initial Assessment (Questions 21-35)
21. The first element of the primary assessment is:
A) Checking the patient's pulse
B) Forming a general impression
C) Opening the airway
D) Assessing for major bleeding
22. Your general impression should be formed within:
A) 30 seconds of first seeing the patient
B) 2 minutes of patient contact
C) After obtaining vital signs
D) After the SAMPLE history
23. The correct order of the primary assessment is:
A) Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
B) Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
STUDY REVIEW & PRACTICE OUTLINE || UPDATED
EMT FISDAP TRAUMA 2026: COMPREHENSIVE STUDY
REVIEW & PRACTICE OUTLINE
Section 1: Trauma System & Mechanism of Injury (Questions 1-15)
1. What is the primary goal of the trauma system?
A) To provide definitive surgical care at the scene
B) To deliver the right patient to the right facility in the right time
C) To allow EMTs to perform advanced procedures
D) To reduce the number of helicopters used
2. According to the CDC's guidelines for field triage of injured patients, which finding is a "Step
One" (Physiologic) criterion for transport to a trauma center?
A) Glasgow Coma Scale score < 14
B) Penetrating injury to the trunk
C) Systolic BP < 110 mmHg
D) GCS < 14, SBP < 90, or RR < 10 or >29
3. A 25-year-old male has fallen approximately 25 feet from a ladder. He is awake but
confused. This mechanism is considered:
A) A minimal trauma risk
B) A high-energy mechanism of injury
C) Significant only if a bone is protruding
D) Insignificant due to his age
4. Which of the following is considered a "Step Two" (Anatomic) criterion in trauma triage?
A) Age > 55
B) All pelvic fractures
C) Flail chest
D) Pedestrian struck at low speed (<5 mph)
5. The energy of a moving object is defined by its:
A) Mass and speed
B) Color and density
,C) Size and temperature
D) Volume and shape
6. Which law of motion explains why a passenger continues moving forward when a car
suddenly stops?
A) Law of Inertia
B) Law of Acceleration
C) Law of Action-Reaction
D) Law of Kinetics
7. During a frontal impact, the second collision is:
A) The vehicle against another object
B) The passenger against the interior of the vehicle
C) The internal organs against solid structures
D) The fuel tank rupturing
8. A "rollover" MVC carries a high index of suspicion for:
A) Isolated extremity fractures
B) Ejection and multiple-system trauma
C) Minor soft-tissue injuries only
D) Cardiac contusions exclusively
9. A helmeted motorcyclist who is thrown from his bike at high speed has a decreased risk of:
A) Spinal injury
B) Extremity fractures
C) Head injury
D) Internal bleeding
10. A pedestrian struck by a vehicle is most likely to sustain injuries to the:
A) Head and legs
B) Hands and arms
C) Pelvis and spine
D) Chest and abdomen
11. Which statement about gunshot wounds is MOST accurate?
A) Exit wounds are always larger than entry wounds.
B) The path of the bullet is always predictable in a straight line.
C) Cavitation can cause injury remote from the bullet's path.
D) Velocity is the only factor determining injury severity.
,12. The "Golden Hour" begins at what point?
A) When the patient arrives at the ED
B) When the patient is loaded into the ambulance
C) At the time of injury
D) When the first EMT arrives on scene
13. An 80-year-old female who slipped and fell from a standing position onto her hip. Her age
alone, given the mechanism, should:
A) Be disregarded; age is not a triage consideration.
B) Trigger consideration for trauma center evaluation under "Step Three" (Special
Considerations).
C) Mean she only needs evaluation for a hip fracture.
D) Lower the index of suspicion for serious injury.
14. What is the primary purpose of rapid trauma assessment?
A) To provide definitive care in the field
B) To identify and treat life-threatening injuries quickly
C) To obtain a detailed patient history
D) To delay transport for more thorough assessment
15. Which of the following BEST describes "index of suspicion"?
A) A diagnosis confirmed by assessment
B) Anticipating the types of injuries based on mechanism
C) The patient's suspicion of the EMT's abilities
D) A guess based on no evidence
Section 2: Scene Size-Up & BSI (Questions 16-20)
16. The first step in any call is:
A) Assessing the patient
B) Ensuring scene safety for yourself and your crew
C) Calling for additional resources
D) Grabbing the jump kit
17. You arrive at an MVC with wires down over the car. The patient is waving at you from
inside. Your FIRST action is to:
A) Put on gloves and approach the vehicle.
B) Tell the patient to get out of the car and walk to you.
, C) Stage at a safe distance and request the power company.
D) Use a non-conductive object to push the wires away.
18. How many sets of gloves should you generally have on an ambulance call?
A) One set for you and one for your partner
B) At least two sets per provider
C) Gloves are only needed for bleeding patients
D) One box
19. Standard Precautions are based on the principle that:
A) All patients are infected with bloodborne pathogens.
B) All blood and body fluids should be treated as potentially infectious.
C) Gloves are not needed if you don't see blood.
D) Only trauma patients pose an infection risk.
20. While sizing up a scene, you note an odd smell, dead insects/birds, and patients with
pinpoint pupils. You should:
A) Immediately begin patient assessment.
B) Suspect a hazardous material or nerve agent and not enter.
C) Assume it's a carbon monoxide leak and ventilate the area.
D) Ask the patients what they ingested.
Section 3: Primary Assessment / Initial Assessment (Questions 21-35)
21. The first element of the primary assessment is:
A) Checking the patient's pulse
B) Forming a general impression
C) Opening the airway
D) Assessing for major bleeding
22. Your general impression should be formed within:
A) 30 seconds of first seeing the patient
B) 2 minutes of patient contact
C) After obtaining vital signs
D) After the SAMPLE history
23. The correct order of the primary assessment is:
A) Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
B) Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
