REVIEW STUDY GUIDE & PRACTICE OUTLINE
|| NEW VERSION
NCCT SURGICAL TECH 2025 – 100 Q&A REVIEW
SECTION 1: FOUNDATIONAL KNOWLEDGE & ASEPTIC TECHNIQUE
1. What is the primary purpose of surgical scrubbing?
A) To moisturize the skin
B) To remove transient and reduce resident microorganisms ✔
C) To stain the skin for better visibility
D) To relax the surgical team
2. Which term describes an item that is free of all living microorganisms?
A) Clean
B) Disinfected
C) Sterile ✔
D) Sanitized
3. The Spaulding Classification for medical devices categorizes items based on:
A) Cost and manufacturer
B) Risk of infection transmission ✔
C) Color and size
D) Country of origin
4. When should a surgical technologist consider a sterile field contaminated?
A) When a non-sterile person turns their back to the field
B) When an unsterile item touches the sterile field ✔
C) When the patient coughs
D) When the overhead lights are adjusted
5. Which solution is commonly used for surgical skin prep?
A) Hydrogen peroxide only
B) Chlorhexidine gluconate or povidone-iodine ✔
C) Rubbing alcohol only
D) Soap and water
,6. The correct sequence for donning sterile attire is:
A) Gown, then gloves
B) Gloves, then gown
C) Gown, then gloves (closed gloving) ✔
D) Mask, then gloves, then gown
7. Which is NOT a common method of sterilization?
A) Steam autoclave
B) Ethylene oxide gas
C) Cold sterile soaking ✔
D) Hydrogen peroxide plasma
8. Biological indicators (spore tests) are used to:
A) Test the sharpness of instruments
B) Verify sterilization effectiveness ✔
C) Identify bacterial types
D) Check room temperature
9. The recommended air exchange rate for an OR is:
A) 5-10 air changes per hour
B) 15-25 air changes per hour ✔
C) 30-40 air changes per hour
D) 50+ air changes per hour
10. Sterile drapes should be placed:
A) From contaminated to clean area
B) From clean to contaminated area
C) From the operative site outward ✔
D) In any direction if held correctly
SECTION 2: ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY
11. The pancreas is located primarily in which abdominal quadrant?
A) Right Upper Quadrant
B) Left Upper Quadrant ✔
C) Right Lower Quadrant
D) Left Lower Quadrant
,12. Which structure is part of the small intestine?
A) Cecum
B) Ileum ✔
C) Sigmoid
D) Rectum
13. The gallbladder is connected to the common bile duct via the:
A) Cystic duct ✔
B) Hepatic duct
C) Pancreatic duct
D) Duodenal duct
14. The “voice box” is anatomically known as the:
A) Pharynx
B) Trachea
C) Larynx ✔
D) Epiglottis
15. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
A) Pulmonary artery
B) Pulmonary vein ✔
C) Aorta
D) Vena cava
16. The outer layer of the uterus is called the:
A) Endometrium
B) Myometrium
C) Perimetrium ✔
D) Cervix
17. How many lobes does the right lung have?
A) 2
B) 3 ✔
C) 4
D) 5
18. The surgical term for removal of the appendix is:
A) Appendectomy ✔
B) Appendicectomy (same, but less common)
, C) Appendicostomy
D) Appendicoplasty
19. Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone?
A) Scapula
B) Sternum
C) Humerus
D) Clavicle ✔
20. The medial malleolus is part of which bone?
A) Femur
B) Tibia ✔
C) Fibula
D) Talus
SECTION 3: INSTRUMENTATION
21. A Babcock clamp is designed to handle:
A) Bone
B) Delicate tissue (like intestine, fallopian tube) ✔
C) Large blood vessels
D) Skin edges
22. Which instrument has both sharp and blunt dissection capabilities?
A) Metzenbaum scissors ✔
B) Mayo scissors
C) Littauer scissors
D) Iris scissors
23. A retractor that is self-retaining and has a ratchet mechanism is:
A) Army-Navy
B) Richardson
C) Gelpi ✔
D) Senn
24. The instrument used to crush the gallbladder pedicle before ligation is a:
A) Mixter clamp
B) Right angle clamp