ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR FORM B 2025 LATEST
UPDATED COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED
GET IT CORRECT!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for warfarin. Which laboratory test should
the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
A) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
B) Platelet count
C) D-dimer
D) Fibrinogen level
E) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Correct Answer: E) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting
factors. The INR is the standardized laboratory test used to monitor its therapeutic effect
and guide dosage adjustments.
Question 2
The nurse is administering an opioid analgesic to a client and notes a respiratory rate of 8
breaths/minute. Which is the priority nursing action?
A) Document the finding and continue to monitor.
B) Administer the prescribed oxygen.
C) Notify the healthcare provider.
D) Administer naloxone as prescribed.
E) Encourage the client to deep breathe.
Correct Answer: D) Administer naloxone as prescribed.
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/minute indicates significant respiratory
depression, a life-threatening adverse effect of opioid analgesics. Naloxone is an opioid
antagonist that rapidly reverses this effect and is the priority intervention.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer medications through a client's nasogastric (NG) tube. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A) Flush the tubing with 30 mL of water.
B) Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
C) Verify proper placement of the NG tube.
D) Clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after administration.
E) Mix all medications together for easier administration.
Correct Answer: C) Verify proper placement of the NG tube.
Rationale: Verifying NG tube placement (e.g., via pH testing, air auscultation, or X-ray
confirmation as per policy) is the critical first step to prevent medication administration
into the lungs, which could cause aspiration pneumonia.
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Question 4
A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving insulin glargine (Lantus). The nurse should instruct
the client that this type of insulin:
A) Should be administered 30 minutes before meals.
B) Is typically administered intravenously.
C) Has a peak effect within 2-4 hours.
D) Has no peak action and provides continuous glucose control.
E) Should be mixed with NPH insulin.
Correct Answer: D) Has no peak action and provides continuous glucose control.
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting (basal) insulin that is designed to provide a
steady, continuous release of insulin over 24 hours, therefore it does not have a distinct
peak effect.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following
findings would the nurse expect?
A) Bounding peripheral pulses.
B) Bradycardia.
C) Increased urine output.
D) Tachycardia and hypotension.
E) Warm, flushed skin.
Correct Answer: D) Tachycardia and hypotension.
Rationale: Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a decrease in circulating blood volume,
leading to compensatory tachycardia (to increase cardiac output) and hypotension (due to
reduced blood volume).
Question 6
When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, which action is appropriate for preventing
aspiration during oral feeding?
A) Place the client in a supine position.
B) Encourage the client to drink thin liquids.
C) Deflate the cuff on the tracheostomy tube, if permitted.
D) Remove the inner cannula during feeding.
E) Offer large bites of food.
Correct Answer: C) Deflate the cuff on the tracheostomy tube, if permitted.
Rationale: Deflating the cuff (if cleared by speech therapy/HCP) allows for better
swallowing mechanics and reduces pressure on the esophagus. The client's ability to protect
their airway is crucial, and a speech-language pathologist evaluation is often indicated
before oral feeds.
Question 7
A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository. Which position should the nurse place the
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client in?
A) Supine with legs straight.
B) Fowler's position.
C) Prone position.
D) Left lateral Sim's position.
E) Right lateral Sim's position.
Correct Answer: D) Left lateral Sim's position.
Rationale: The left lateral Sim's position helps to facilitate insertion of the suppository along
the rectal wall and allows gravity to aid in its retention.
Question 8
A nurse is assessing a newborn client. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare
provider immediately?
A) Acrocyanosis.
B) Mongolian spots.
C) Jaundice noted at 36 hours of age.
D) Nasal flaring and grunting.
E) Milia on the nose.
Correct Answer: D) Nasal flaring and grunting.
Rationale: Nasal flaring and grunting are signs of respiratory distress in a newborn and
require immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 9
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for furosemide
(Lasix). Which dietary recommendation should the nurse include?
A) Increase sodium intake.
B) Limit fluid intake.
C) Increase potassium-rich foods.
D) Avoid all dairy products.
E) Restrict protein intake.
Correct Answer: C) Increase potassium-rich foods.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium, so clients
are at risk for hypokalemia and should be encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube. Which
intervention should the nurse perform to prevent aspiration?
A) Administer feedings rapidly.
B) Position the client in a supine position during feedings.
C) Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30-45 degrees.
D) Disconnect the feeding for 1 hour every 4 hours.
E) Administer cold formula.
UPDATED COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED
GET IT CORRECT!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for warfarin. Which laboratory test should
the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
A) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
B) Platelet count
C) D-dimer
D) Fibrinogen level
E) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Correct Answer: E) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting
factors. The INR is the standardized laboratory test used to monitor its therapeutic effect
and guide dosage adjustments.
Question 2
The nurse is administering an opioid analgesic to a client and notes a respiratory rate of 8
breaths/minute. Which is the priority nursing action?
A) Document the finding and continue to monitor.
B) Administer the prescribed oxygen.
C) Notify the healthcare provider.
D) Administer naloxone as prescribed.
E) Encourage the client to deep breathe.
Correct Answer: D) Administer naloxone as prescribed.
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/minute indicates significant respiratory
depression, a life-threatening adverse effect of opioid analgesics. Naloxone is an opioid
antagonist that rapidly reverses this effect and is the priority intervention.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer medications through a client's nasogastric (NG) tube. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A) Flush the tubing with 30 mL of water.
B) Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
C) Verify proper placement of the NG tube.
D) Clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after administration.
E) Mix all medications together for easier administration.
Correct Answer: C) Verify proper placement of the NG tube.
Rationale: Verifying NG tube placement (e.g., via pH testing, air auscultation, or X-ray
confirmation as per policy) is the critical first step to prevent medication administration
into the lungs, which could cause aspiration pneumonia.
,[Type here]
Question 4
A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving insulin glargine (Lantus). The nurse should instruct
the client that this type of insulin:
A) Should be administered 30 minutes before meals.
B) Is typically administered intravenously.
C) Has a peak effect within 2-4 hours.
D) Has no peak action and provides continuous glucose control.
E) Should be mixed with NPH insulin.
Correct Answer: D) Has no peak action and provides continuous glucose control.
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting (basal) insulin that is designed to provide a
steady, continuous release of insulin over 24 hours, therefore it does not have a distinct
peak effect.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following
findings would the nurse expect?
A) Bounding peripheral pulses.
B) Bradycardia.
C) Increased urine output.
D) Tachycardia and hypotension.
E) Warm, flushed skin.
Correct Answer: D) Tachycardia and hypotension.
Rationale: Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a decrease in circulating blood volume,
leading to compensatory tachycardia (to increase cardiac output) and hypotension (due to
reduced blood volume).
Question 6
When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, which action is appropriate for preventing
aspiration during oral feeding?
A) Place the client in a supine position.
B) Encourage the client to drink thin liquids.
C) Deflate the cuff on the tracheostomy tube, if permitted.
D) Remove the inner cannula during feeding.
E) Offer large bites of food.
Correct Answer: C) Deflate the cuff on the tracheostomy tube, if permitted.
Rationale: Deflating the cuff (if cleared by speech therapy/HCP) allows for better
swallowing mechanics and reduces pressure on the esophagus. The client's ability to protect
their airway is crucial, and a speech-language pathologist evaluation is often indicated
before oral feeds.
Question 7
A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository. Which position should the nurse place the
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client in?
A) Supine with legs straight.
B) Fowler's position.
C) Prone position.
D) Left lateral Sim's position.
E) Right lateral Sim's position.
Correct Answer: D) Left lateral Sim's position.
Rationale: The left lateral Sim's position helps to facilitate insertion of the suppository along
the rectal wall and allows gravity to aid in its retention.
Question 8
A nurse is assessing a newborn client. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare
provider immediately?
A) Acrocyanosis.
B) Mongolian spots.
C) Jaundice noted at 36 hours of age.
D) Nasal flaring and grunting.
E) Milia on the nose.
Correct Answer: D) Nasal flaring and grunting.
Rationale: Nasal flaring and grunting are signs of respiratory distress in a newborn and
require immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 9
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for furosemide
(Lasix). Which dietary recommendation should the nurse include?
A) Increase sodium intake.
B) Limit fluid intake.
C) Increase potassium-rich foods.
D) Avoid all dairy products.
E) Restrict protein intake.
Correct Answer: C) Increase potassium-rich foods.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium, so clients
are at risk for hypokalemia and should be encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube. Which
intervention should the nurse perform to prevent aspiration?
A) Administer feedings rapidly.
B) Position the client in a supine position during feedings.
C) Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30-45 degrees.
D) Disconnect the feeding for 1 hour every 4 hours.
E) Administer cold formula.
