LEO FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS A+ GRADED
Question 1
According to the U.S. Supreme Court decision in Terry v. Ohio (1968), what legal standard
is required for an officer to conduct a "stop and frisk" of a subject?
A) Proof beyond a reasonable doubt that a crime occurred.
B) Probable cause that the subject has committed a felony.
C) Reasonable suspicion that criminal activity is afoot and the subject may be armed and
dangerous.
D) A mere hunch or gut feeling that something is wrong.
E) Consent from the subject to speak with the officer.
Correct Answer: C) Reasonable suspicion that criminal activity is afoot and the subject
may be armed and dangerous.
Rationale: Terry v. Ohio established that an officer may briefly detain a person for
investigative purposes if they have "reasonable suspicion" based on articulable facts that
criminal activity is afoot. To conduct a "frisk" (pat-down of outer clothing), the officer
must possess a specific, articulable reasonable suspicion that the person is armed and
presently dangerous. This is a lower standard than probable cause but higher than a
hunch.
Question 2
Which Amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects citizens against "unreasonable
searches and seizures"?
A) The First Amendment
B) The Fourth Amendment
C) The Fifth Amendment
D) The Sixth Amendment
E) The Eighth Amendment
Correct Answer: B) The Fourth Amendment
Rationale: The Fourth Amendment specifically guarantees the right of the people to be
secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and
seizures, and establishes the requirement for Probable Cause for the issuance of warrants.
Question 3
Under Miranda v. Arizona, two specific conditions must exist simultaneously for the
requirement of Miranda warnings to apply. What are they?
A) Arrest and Booking.
B) Detention and Handcuffing.
,[Type here]
C) Custody and Interrogation.
D) Suspicion and Questioning.
E) Stop and Frisk.
Correct Answer: C) Custody and Interrogation.
Rationale: Miranda warnings are only required when a suspect is subject to "Custodial
Interrogation." Custody means a formal arrest or a restraint on freedom of movement of
the degree associated with a formal arrest. Interrogation refers to questioning or actions
reasonably likely to elicit an incriminating response. If one element is missing (e.g., a
subject is not in custody), Miranda does not strictly apply.
Question 4
What is the legal doctrine established in Mapp v. Ohio that prohibits the use of illegally
obtained evidence in a criminal trial?
A) The Inclusionary Rule
B) The Plain View Doctrine
C) The Exclusionary Rule
D) The Carroll Doctrine
E) The Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine
Correct Answer: C) The Exclusionary Rule
Rationale: The Exclusionary Rule mandates that evidence obtained in violation of a
defendant's constitutional rights (specifically the Fourth Amendment) cannot be used
against them in a court of law. Mapp v. Ohio applied this rule to the states.
Question 5
In Graham v. Connor (1989), the Supreme Court ruled that all claims of excessive force by
law enforcement officials are analyzed under which standard?
A) The "Subjective Intent" standard of the Eighth Amendment.
B) The "Objective Reasonableness" standard of the Fourth Amendment.
C) The "Due Process" standard of the Fourteenth Amendment.
D) The "Clear and Present Danger" standard.
E) The "Shock the Conscience" standard.
Correct Answer: B) The "Objective Reasonableness" standard of the Fourth Amendment.
Rationale: The Court held that use of force is a "seizure" under the Fourth Amendment.
Therefore, the reasonableness of a particular use of force must be judged from the
perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene, rather than with the 20/20 vision of
hindsight, without regard to the officer's underlying intent or motivation.
, [Type here]
Question 6
Which of the following scenarios best describes the "Plain View" doctrine?
A) An officer opens a drawer looking for a rifle and finds drugs.
B) An officer is legally present in a location and observes an object that is immediately apparent
as contraband without moving or manipulating it.
C) An officer uses a thermal imaging device to see heat signatures inside a house.
D) An officer climbs a fence to look into a backyard and sees stolen goods.
E) An officer stops a car for speeding and searches the trunk without consent.
Correct Answer: B) An officer is legally present in a location and observes an object that is
immediately apparent as contraband without moving or manipulating it.
Rationale: For the Plain View doctrine to apply, three criteria must be met: 1) The officer
must be lawfully present at the location where the evidence can be viewed; 2) The officer
must have a lawful right of access to the object; and 3) The incriminating nature of the
object must be "immediately apparent" (probable cause) without the need to move or
manipulate the object (Arizona v. Hicks).
Question 7
According to Tennessee v. Garner, when is the use of deadly force against a fleeing felon
constitutionally permissible?
A) Whenever a felony suspect runs from the police.
B) Only if the suspect has stolen property valued over $1,000.
C) If the suspect is fleeing into a wooded area and might escape.
D) If the officer has probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death
or serious physical injury to the officer or others.
E) If the officer has fired a warning shot first.
Correct Answer: D) If the officer has probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a
significant threat of death or serious physical injury to the officer or others.
Rationale: Tennessee v. Garner struck down the old "fleeing felon" rule. Deadly force may
not be used unless it is necessary to prevent the escape and the officer has probable cause to
believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious physical injury to the
officer or others.
Question 8
What constitutes the "curtilage" of a home?
A) The interior of the master bedroom only.
B) The area immediately surrounding the home which harbors the intimate activity associated
SOLUTIONS A+ GRADED
Question 1
According to the U.S. Supreme Court decision in Terry v. Ohio (1968), what legal standard
is required for an officer to conduct a "stop and frisk" of a subject?
A) Proof beyond a reasonable doubt that a crime occurred.
B) Probable cause that the subject has committed a felony.
C) Reasonable suspicion that criminal activity is afoot and the subject may be armed and
dangerous.
D) A mere hunch or gut feeling that something is wrong.
E) Consent from the subject to speak with the officer.
Correct Answer: C) Reasonable suspicion that criminal activity is afoot and the subject
may be armed and dangerous.
Rationale: Terry v. Ohio established that an officer may briefly detain a person for
investigative purposes if they have "reasonable suspicion" based on articulable facts that
criminal activity is afoot. To conduct a "frisk" (pat-down of outer clothing), the officer
must possess a specific, articulable reasonable suspicion that the person is armed and
presently dangerous. This is a lower standard than probable cause but higher than a
hunch.
Question 2
Which Amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects citizens against "unreasonable
searches and seizures"?
A) The First Amendment
B) The Fourth Amendment
C) The Fifth Amendment
D) The Sixth Amendment
E) The Eighth Amendment
Correct Answer: B) The Fourth Amendment
Rationale: The Fourth Amendment specifically guarantees the right of the people to be
secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and
seizures, and establishes the requirement for Probable Cause for the issuance of warrants.
Question 3
Under Miranda v. Arizona, two specific conditions must exist simultaneously for the
requirement of Miranda warnings to apply. What are they?
A) Arrest and Booking.
B) Detention and Handcuffing.
,[Type here]
C) Custody and Interrogation.
D) Suspicion and Questioning.
E) Stop and Frisk.
Correct Answer: C) Custody and Interrogation.
Rationale: Miranda warnings are only required when a suspect is subject to "Custodial
Interrogation." Custody means a formal arrest or a restraint on freedom of movement of
the degree associated with a formal arrest. Interrogation refers to questioning or actions
reasonably likely to elicit an incriminating response. If one element is missing (e.g., a
subject is not in custody), Miranda does not strictly apply.
Question 4
What is the legal doctrine established in Mapp v. Ohio that prohibits the use of illegally
obtained evidence in a criminal trial?
A) The Inclusionary Rule
B) The Plain View Doctrine
C) The Exclusionary Rule
D) The Carroll Doctrine
E) The Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine
Correct Answer: C) The Exclusionary Rule
Rationale: The Exclusionary Rule mandates that evidence obtained in violation of a
defendant's constitutional rights (specifically the Fourth Amendment) cannot be used
against them in a court of law. Mapp v. Ohio applied this rule to the states.
Question 5
In Graham v. Connor (1989), the Supreme Court ruled that all claims of excessive force by
law enforcement officials are analyzed under which standard?
A) The "Subjective Intent" standard of the Eighth Amendment.
B) The "Objective Reasonableness" standard of the Fourth Amendment.
C) The "Due Process" standard of the Fourteenth Amendment.
D) The "Clear and Present Danger" standard.
E) The "Shock the Conscience" standard.
Correct Answer: B) The "Objective Reasonableness" standard of the Fourth Amendment.
Rationale: The Court held that use of force is a "seizure" under the Fourth Amendment.
Therefore, the reasonableness of a particular use of force must be judged from the
perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene, rather than with the 20/20 vision of
hindsight, without regard to the officer's underlying intent or motivation.
, [Type here]
Question 6
Which of the following scenarios best describes the "Plain View" doctrine?
A) An officer opens a drawer looking for a rifle and finds drugs.
B) An officer is legally present in a location and observes an object that is immediately apparent
as contraband without moving or manipulating it.
C) An officer uses a thermal imaging device to see heat signatures inside a house.
D) An officer climbs a fence to look into a backyard and sees stolen goods.
E) An officer stops a car for speeding and searches the trunk without consent.
Correct Answer: B) An officer is legally present in a location and observes an object that is
immediately apparent as contraband without moving or manipulating it.
Rationale: For the Plain View doctrine to apply, three criteria must be met: 1) The officer
must be lawfully present at the location where the evidence can be viewed; 2) The officer
must have a lawful right of access to the object; and 3) The incriminating nature of the
object must be "immediately apparent" (probable cause) without the need to move or
manipulate the object (Arizona v. Hicks).
Question 7
According to Tennessee v. Garner, when is the use of deadly force against a fleeing felon
constitutionally permissible?
A) Whenever a felony suspect runs from the police.
B) Only if the suspect has stolen property valued over $1,000.
C) If the suspect is fleeing into a wooded area and might escape.
D) If the officer has probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death
or serious physical injury to the officer or others.
E) If the officer has fired a warning shot first.
Correct Answer: D) If the officer has probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a
significant threat of death or serious physical injury to the officer or others.
Rationale: Tennessee v. Garner struck down the old "fleeing felon" rule. Deadly force may
not be used unless it is necessary to prevent the escape and the officer has probable cause to
believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious physical injury to the
officer or others.
Question 8
What constitutes the "curtilage" of a home?
A) The interior of the master bedroom only.
B) The area immediately surrounding the home which harbors the intimate activity associated
