FOOD PROTECTION MANAGER CERTIFICATION EXAM | 2025/2026
Newest Actual Exam with Complete Questions & Verified Answers | ANSI/CFP Accredited
Overview
This 2025/2026 updated resource contains the newest ANSI/CFP-accredited Food
Protection Manager Certification exam with complete questions and verified answers.
Aligned with the latest FDA Food Code and national food safety standards.
Key Features
✓ Actual ANSI/CFP exam format and question style
✓ Complete coverage of all 8 FDA Food Code domains
✓ Updated 2025 FDA Food Code revisions
✓ HACCP principles and active managerial control
✓ Real-world scenario-based questions
Core Content Areas
• Foodborne Illness & Contamination Prevention (15 Qs)
• Personal Hygiene & Employee Health (12 Qs)
• Safe Food Preparation & Cooking Temperatures (15 Qs)
• Food Storage & Temperature Control (12 Qs)
• Cleaning, Sanitizing & Facility Management (10 Qs)
• Pest Control & Waste Management (8 Qs)
• HACCP Principles & Risk-Based Inspections (10 Qs)
• Regulatory Compliance & Manager Responsibilities (8 Qs)
Answer Format
Correct answers are marked in bold green and include:
• Specific FDA Food Code section references
• Critical control point explanations
• Temperature danger zone and time/temperature relationships
• Cross-contamination prevention strategies
Updates for 2025/2026
Reflects 2025 FDA Food Code updates (including new allergen controls)
Enhanced emphasis on norovirus prevention in food service
Updated cooking temperatures for specific products
New digital food safety monitoring technologies
Revised employee health policy requirements
FOODBORNE ILLNESS & CONTAMINATION PREVENTION (Questions 1–15)
1. Which pathogen is a bacterium commonly linked to undercooked ground beef?
a) Norovirus
b) Salmonella Typhi
, c) Escherichia coli O157:H7
d) Hepatitis A virus
c) Escherichia coli O157:H7
Rationale: FDA Food Code 2025 §3-501.17; ground beef internal temp 155 °F for 15
seconds to destroy this STEC.
2. The temperature danger zone in which pathogens grow most rapidly is:
a) 32 °F – 70 °F
b) 41 °F – 135 °F
c) 70 °F – 120 °F
d) 135 °F – 165 °F
b) 41 °F – 135 °F
Rationale: FDA 2025 §3-501.16; hold cold ≤41 °F, hot ≥135 °F.
3. Cross-contamination is best defined as:
a) Cooking food too quickly
b) Transfer of pathogens from one surface/food to another
c) Serving food at wrong temperature
d) Over-seasoning food
b) Transfer of pathogens from one surface/food to another
Rationale: Prevented by color-coded boards, separate prep areas, proper storage
order.
4. Which parasite is linked to undercooked pork and wild game?
a) Trichinella spiralis
b) Vibrio vulnificus
c) Campylobacter jejuni
d) Listeria monocytogenes
a) Trichinella spiralis
Rationale: FDA 2025 §3-401.11; pork and game to 145 °F (15 s) with 3 min rest.
5. Norovirus is most commonly spread via:
a) Undercooked poultry
b) Fecal-oral route from infected food handlers
c) Contaminated water tanks
d) Raw shellfish only
b) Fecal-oral route from infected food handlers
Rationale: 2025 Code emphasizes 48-h exclusion after symptoms cease.
6. Which toxin can form in cooked rice left at room temperature?
a) Aflatoxin
b) Bacillus cereus emetic toxin
c) Scombrotoxin
d) Ciguatoxin
b) Bacillus cereus emetic toxin
Rationale: Spore-forming bacteria; reheat to 165 °F or cool ≤41 °F within 2 h.
7. Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for:
a) All food employees
b) Only managers
c) Only dishwashers
d) Not recommended
a) All food employees
Rationale: CDC 2025; high-risk populations including food handlers.
, 8. STEC (Shiga-toxin producing E. coli) symptoms typically include:
a) Respiratory distress
b) Bloody diarrhea & HUS risk
c) Skin rash
d) Blurred vision
b) Bloody diarrhea & HUS risk
Rationale: Hemolytic uremic syndrome in children; critical to verify ground-beef
temps.
9. Listeria can grow at refrigeration temperatures as low as:
a) 32 °F (0 °C)
b) 29 °F (-1.5 °C)
c) 41 °F (5 °C)
d) 50 °F (10 °C)
b) 29 °F (-1.5 °C)
Rationale: Psychrotrophic pathogen; FIFO rotation and cold-chain critical.
10. Anisakis is a nematode associated with:
a) Raw or undercooked fish (sushi)
b) Raw milk
c) Sprouts
d) Deli meats
a) Raw or undercooked fish (sushi)
Rationale: FDA 2025 §3-402.11; -4 °F for 7 days or -31 °F for 15 h kills larvae.
11. Water activity (aw) level below which most bacteria cannot grow is:
a) 0.95
b) 0.90
c) 0.85
d) 0.80
c) 0.85
Rationale: Control with salt, sugar, dehydration; aw 0.85 is FDA threshold for TCS
foods.
12. Clostridium botulinum spores are destroyed by heating at 250 °F (121 °C) for:
a) 1 minute
b) 3 minutes
c) 12 minutes (12-D concept)
d) 30 minutes
c) 12 minutes (12-D concept)
Rationale: Commercial sterilization standard; home canning uses pressure canner
240–250 °F.
13. Scombroid poisoning is linked to time-temperature abuse of:
a) Ground beef
b) Tuna and mackerel
c) Eggs
d) Leafy greens
b) Tuna and mackerel
Rationale: Histamine formation; hold ≤41 °F, cook to 145 °F.
14. Vibrio species are halophilic (salt-loving) and associated with:
a) Raw oysters
b) Pasteurized milk
Newest Actual Exam with Complete Questions & Verified Answers | ANSI/CFP Accredited
Overview
This 2025/2026 updated resource contains the newest ANSI/CFP-accredited Food
Protection Manager Certification exam with complete questions and verified answers.
Aligned with the latest FDA Food Code and national food safety standards.
Key Features
✓ Actual ANSI/CFP exam format and question style
✓ Complete coverage of all 8 FDA Food Code domains
✓ Updated 2025 FDA Food Code revisions
✓ HACCP principles and active managerial control
✓ Real-world scenario-based questions
Core Content Areas
• Foodborne Illness & Contamination Prevention (15 Qs)
• Personal Hygiene & Employee Health (12 Qs)
• Safe Food Preparation & Cooking Temperatures (15 Qs)
• Food Storage & Temperature Control (12 Qs)
• Cleaning, Sanitizing & Facility Management (10 Qs)
• Pest Control & Waste Management (8 Qs)
• HACCP Principles & Risk-Based Inspections (10 Qs)
• Regulatory Compliance & Manager Responsibilities (8 Qs)
Answer Format
Correct answers are marked in bold green and include:
• Specific FDA Food Code section references
• Critical control point explanations
• Temperature danger zone and time/temperature relationships
• Cross-contamination prevention strategies
Updates for 2025/2026
Reflects 2025 FDA Food Code updates (including new allergen controls)
Enhanced emphasis on norovirus prevention in food service
Updated cooking temperatures for specific products
New digital food safety monitoring technologies
Revised employee health policy requirements
FOODBORNE ILLNESS & CONTAMINATION PREVENTION (Questions 1–15)
1. Which pathogen is a bacterium commonly linked to undercooked ground beef?
a) Norovirus
b) Salmonella Typhi
, c) Escherichia coli O157:H7
d) Hepatitis A virus
c) Escherichia coli O157:H7
Rationale: FDA Food Code 2025 §3-501.17; ground beef internal temp 155 °F for 15
seconds to destroy this STEC.
2. The temperature danger zone in which pathogens grow most rapidly is:
a) 32 °F – 70 °F
b) 41 °F – 135 °F
c) 70 °F – 120 °F
d) 135 °F – 165 °F
b) 41 °F – 135 °F
Rationale: FDA 2025 §3-501.16; hold cold ≤41 °F, hot ≥135 °F.
3. Cross-contamination is best defined as:
a) Cooking food too quickly
b) Transfer of pathogens from one surface/food to another
c) Serving food at wrong temperature
d) Over-seasoning food
b) Transfer of pathogens from one surface/food to another
Rationale: Prevented by color-coded boards, separate prep areas, proper storage
order.
4. Which parasite is linked to undercooked pork and wild game?
a) Trichinella spiralis
b) Vibrio vulnificus
c) Campylobacter jejuni
d) Listeria monocytogenes
a) Trichinella spiralis
Rationale: FDA 2025 §3-401.11; pork and game to 145 °F (15 s) with 3 min rest.
5. Norovirus is most commonly spread via:
a) Undercooked poultry
b) Fecal-oral route from infected food handlers
c) Contaminated water tanks
d) Raw shellfish only
b) Fecal-oral route from infected food handlers
Rationale: 2025 Code emphasizes 48-h exclusion after symptoms cease.
6. Which toxin can form in cooked rice left at room temperature?
a) Aflatoxin
b) Bacillus cereus emetic toxin
c) Scombrotoxin
d) Ciguatoxin
b) Bacillus cereus emetic toxin
Rationale: Spore-forming bacteria; reheat to 165 °F or cool ≤41 °F within 2 h.
7. Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for:
a) All food employees
b) Only managers
c) Only dishwashers
d) Not recommended
a) All food employees
Rationale: CDC 2025; high-risk populations including food handlers.
, 8. STEC (Shiga-toxin producing E. coli) symptoms typically include:
a) Respiratory distress
b) Bloody diarrhea & HUS risk
c) Skin rash
d) Blurred vision
b) Bloody diarrhea & HUS risk
Rationale: Hemolytic uremic syndrome in children; critical to verify ground-beef
temps.
9. Listeria can grow at refrigeration temperatures as low as:
a) 32 °F (0 °C)
b) 29 °F (-1.5 °C)
c) 41 °F (5 °C)
d) 50 °F (10 °C)
b) 29 °F (-1.5 °C)
Rationale: Psychrotrophic pathogen; FIFO rotation and cold-chain critical.
10. Anisakis is a nematode associated with:
a) Raw or undercooked fish (sushi)
b) Raw milk
c) Sprouts
d) Deli meats
a) Raw or undercooked fish (sushi)
Rationale: FDA 2025 §3-402.11; -4 °F for 7 days or -31 °F for 15 h kills larvae.
11. Water activity (aw) level below which most bacteria cannot grow is:
a) 0.95
b) 0.90
c) 0.85
d) 0.80
c) 0.85
Rationale: Control with salt, sugar, dehydration; aw 0.85 is FDA threshold for TCS
foods.
12. Clostridium botulinum spores are destroyed by heating at 250 °F (121 °C) for:
a) 1 minute
b) 3 minutes
c) 12 minutes (12-D concept)
d) 30 minutes
c) 12 minutes (12-D concept)
Rationale: Commercial sterilization standard; home canning uses pressure canner
240–250 °F.
13. Scombroid poisoning is linked to time-temperature abuse of:
a) Ground beef
b) Tuna and mackerel
c) Eggs
d) Leafy greens
b) Tuna and mackerel
Rationale: Histamine formation; hold ≤41 °F, cook to 145 °F.
14. Vibrio species are halophilic (salt-loving) and associated with:
a) Raw oysters
b) Pasteurized milk
