NUR 565 Advanced pharmacology Chamberlain University Approved Practice Midterm Exam 2025

NUR 565 Advanced pharmacology Chamberlain University Approved Practice Midterm Exam 2025 What are two functions of naloxone when a patient is on buprenorphine? A. Prevention of toxicity B. Stop constipation caused by Buprenorphine C. Cannot readily reverse toxicity already occurring D. Both A and C D. Both A and C Why must an NP be cautious when prescribing medications to the elderly population? A. Due to their diagnosis of dementia. B. They are high risk for polypharmacy. C. The elderly population metabolizes medication faster. D. Prescribe as usual. No difference in elderly patients. B. They are high risk for polypharmacy. There are several points of education that should be given to a patient taking acetaminophen. Which of these statements if made by the patient taking acetaminophen is incorrect? A. "If I take one dose, I should wait at least four hours to take another." B. "There is no limit to how many tablets I can take each day." C. "I should not take Tylenol if I have liver disease or chronically drink alcohol." D. "I can take 325-650mg for mild pain, and 500-1000mg for moderate pain." B. "There is no limit to how many tablets you can take each day." What is the point of a prescription drug monitoring program (PDMP)? A. Help identify patients who may be at risk for overdose B. Make prescribing faster for providers C. Educate patients about overdose D. Provide correct dosing and pricing information for providers A. Help identify patients who may be at risk for overdose The purpose of black box warnings is to make providers aware of A. ways to reduce and prevent harm, such as pregnant women avoiding teratogenic drugs. B. potential common side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, or upset stomach. C. potential severe side effects, such as fetal harm, suicidality, or near-fatal NURS 565 NURS 565 dysrhythmias. D. Both A and C D. Both A and C Patients with renal and hepatic insufficiency can experience all of the following effects from medications except: A. Greater peak effects B. Longer duration of action C. Increased risk for respiratory depression D. Increased dosages of medications E. Increased risk of overdose D. Increased dosages of medications Which of the following is not a guiding principle for prescribers when considering opioid medications? A. Prescribe opioids only when non-pharmacologic and non-opioid treatments have been ineffective. B. Use the lowest effective dose for the shortest duration. C. Assess the patient's risk of overdose. D. Avoid referring patients to pain specialists for pain management. D. Avoid referring patients to pain specialists for pain management. The nurse practitioner will educate their patient on which black box warning associated with methadone? A. Severe hyperventilation B. Increased suicidal thoughts in youth C. Prolonged QT interval D. Pancreatitis C. Prolonged QT interval Which of the following is true regarding prescriptive authority? A: The Federal Government has total control over the APRN's Prescriptive Authority. B: APRN Prescriptive Authority is determined by the Individual State. C: Full Prescriptive Authority is only reached when the APRN has a Doctorate Degree. D: There are no States where APRNs have Full Prescriptive Authority. B: APRN Prescriptive Authority is determined by the Individual State. A black box warning must provide an accurate and concise summary of the drug's adverse effects and the risks associated when taking the medication, even when taken as prescribed. A. True B. False A. True Which drug class has a side effect of reflex tachycardia? A. ACE inhibitors NURS 565 NURS 565 B. Calcium Channel Blockers C. Thiazide diuretics D. Beta Blockers B. Calcium Channel Blockers Which blood pressure medication is safe for a woman who is pregnant? A. Lisinopril B. Amlodipine C. Labetalol D. Valsartan C. Labetalol Ezetimibe (Zetia) is used to help reduce the absorption of cholesterol in the blood. It is known to help decrease levels of LDL cholesterol, triglycerides, and apolipoprotein B but is known to slightly increase what? A. CK level B. Potassium level C. HDL cholesterol D. LFTs C. HDL cholesterol What are the monitoring needs of thiazide diuretics? A. Weight B. Blood Pressure C. Potassium D. All of the above D. All of the above What medication is the first line recommendation for blood pressure control? A. ACE Inhibitor B. ARB C. Thiazide diuretic D. Calcium Channel Blocker C. Thiazide diuretic When should naloxone be prescribed to a patient? A. After the patient's first overdose B. With every opioid prescription C. At the patient's request D. After an appointment with a pain specialist B. With every opioid prescription What is recommended as first-line drugs for treating hypertension, especially for patients with risk factors for osteoporosis? A. Thiazides B. Diuretics. NURS 565 NURS 565 C. Beta-blockers. D. ACE inhibitors. A. Thiazides When is the appropriate time to recommend that a patient see a pain specialist? A. 120 mg or more of morphine a day B. 40 mg morphine daily C. 25 mcg of fentanyl daily D. None of the above A. 120 mg or more of morphine a day What are the contraindications for ranolazine when treating angina? A. Hepatic impairment B. Renal impairment C. Prior prolonged QT D. Both A and C D. Both A and C The NP understands it is best to avoid prescribing a patient both quinidine and digoxin concurrently because: A. Digoxin increases increases the rate of absorption of Quinidine B. Quinidine can promote digoxin toxicity. C. Quinidine increases renal excretion of digoxin. D. Digoxin delays the onset of action of Quinidine. B. Quinidine can promote digoxin toxicity. Why is the BEERS criteria important?