1|Page
CEA EXAM 2025 TEST BANK WITH 500 EXAM PREP
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS/ CEA FNP
TEST 2025 TEST BANK (100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS)
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-
grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower
chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of
the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of
focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - ...ANSWER...✓✓Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during
relaxation is a trademark of which of the following
diagnoses? - ...ANSWER...✓✓Diastolic dysfunction
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Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is
common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has
been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been
restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the
BEST medication to prescribe him? -
...ANSWER...✓✓Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy
for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle
modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending
aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered
standard of care for serial surveillance? -
...ANSWER...✓✓CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of
care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions with
,3|Page
contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the
aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a
plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they
are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed
to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is
not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires
the patient to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1
stimulation? - ...ANSWER...✓✓phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension
presents with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On
examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most
likely diagnosis? - ...ANSWER...✓✓Congestive heart
failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate
response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying
both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous
extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the
, 4|Page
patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not described
that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload.
The only appropriate response of these available is
congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40%
who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been
diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and
received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to
the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home
who will manage this patient after discharge, which
medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in
the patient's care? - ...ANSWER...✓✓Ordering a
transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF
is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective
mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since most patients are not
eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing
their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3
months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is
CEA EXAM 2025 TEST BANK WITH 500 EXAM PREP
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS/ CEA FNP
TEST 2025 TEST BANK (100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS)
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-
grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower
chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of
the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of
focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - ...ANSWER...✓✓Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during
relaxation is a trademark of which of the following
diagnoses? - ...ANSWER...✓✓Diastolic dysfunction
,2|Page
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is
common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has
been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been
restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the
BEST medication to prescribe him? -
...ANSWER...✓✓Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy
for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle
modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending
aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered
standard of care for serial surveillance? -
...ANSWER...✓✓CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of
care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions with
,3|Page
contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the
aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a
plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they
are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed
to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is
not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires
the patient to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1
stimulation? - ...ANSWER...✓✓phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension
presents with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On
examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most
likely diagnosis? - ...ANSWER...✓✓Congestive heart
failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate
response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying
both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous
extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the
, 4|Page
patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not described
that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload.
The only appropriate response of these available is
congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40%
who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been
diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and
received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to
the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home
who will manage this patient after discharge, which
medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in
the patient's care? - ...ANSWER...✓✓Ordering a
transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF
is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective
mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since most patients are not
eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing
their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3
months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is
