D398 HLTH 2422
Introduction to Pharmacology
Objective Assessments
2025 Versions
(With Solutions)
1. Which phase of drug action involves the process by which a drug is absorbed, distributed,
metabolized, and excreted by the body?
A) Pharmacodynamics
B) Pharmacokinetics
C) Pharmacogenetics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Answer: B) Pharmacokinetics
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes how the body handles a drug through absorption,
distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
2. Which route of drug administration typically has the fastest onset of action?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Intravenous
D) Subcutaneous
Answer: C) Intravenous
Rationale: Intravenous administration delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, providing
the fastest onset.
3. What is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism?
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Lung
D) Stomach
Answer: B) Liver
Rationale: The liver is the main site of enzyme activity that metabolizes drugs into more water-
soluble compounds for excretion.
4. Which term describes the ability of a drug to produce a maximum therapeutic effect regardless
of dose?
A) Potency
B) Efficacy
,C) Bioavailability
D) Toxicity
Answer: B) Efficacy
Rationale: Efficacy refers to the drug’s maximum effect when bound to receptors.
5. The process by which a drug crosses biological membranes to reach its site of action is called:
A) Biotransformation
B) Absorption
C) Distribution
D) Excretion
Answer: B) Absorption
Rationale: Absorption describes the movement of a drug from the site of administration into the
bloodstream.
6. Which of the following drug receptors is most commonly involved in the effect of most drugs?
A) Enzyme-linked receptors
B) Ligand-gated ion channels
C) G protein-coupled receptors
D) Intracellular receptors
Answer: C) G protein-coupled receptors
Rationale: G protein-coupled receptors represent the largest family of receptors that many drugs
target.
7. A nurse knows that "half-life" of a drug is:
A) The time for the drug to reach the maximum concentration in plasma
B) The time for the drug to be completely eliminated
C) The time for the plasma concentration of a drug to reduce by half
D) The duration of the drug’s therapeutic effect
Answer: C) The time for the plasma concentration of a drug to reduce by half
Rationale: Half-life determines dosing intervals and steady-state drug levels.
8. What is the bioavailability of a drug?
A) The amount of drug administered
B) The fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic circulation in active form
C) The speed at which a drug is absorbed
D) The rate of drug metabolism
Answer: B) The fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic circulation in active form
Rationale: Bioavailability indicates the extent of absorption and first-pass metabolism.
,9. Which phase of clinical trials assesses safety, dosage ranges, and side effects?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
Answer: A) Phase I
Rationale: Phase I trials are conducted on healthy volunteers primarily to evaluate safety.
10. How does the "first-pass effect" influence orally administered drugs?
A) It improves drug efficacy by increasing absorption
B) It reduces drug bioavailability by metabolism in the liver before reaching systemic circulation
C) It causes drug elimination through kidneys
D) It makes the drug more potent
Answer: B) It reduces drug bioavailability by metabolism in the liver before reaching systemic
circulation
Rationale: The first-pass effect is the liver’s metabolism of a drug before it enters systemic
circulation.
11. Which nursing action best prevents medication errors?
A) Administering all drugs quickly
B) Using the "five rights" of medication administration
C) Avoiding documentation
D) Skipping double checks for routine medications
Answer: B) Using the "five rights" of medication administration
Rationale: The five rights (right patient, drug, dose, time, route) help prevent errors.
12. Which category of drugs acts by blocking receptor activity?
A) Agonists
B) Antagonists
C) Partial agonists
D) Enzyme inducers
Answer: B) Antagonists
Rationale: Antagonists bind to receptors without activating them, blocking the effects of agonists.
13. When a nurse observes signs of an allergic reaction after drug administration, what is the likely
mechanism?
A) Side effect
B) Tolerance
C) Hypersensitivity
D) Toxicity
, Answer: C) Hypersensitivity
Rationale: Allergic reactions are immune-mediated hypersensitivity responses to drugs.
14. Which laboratory test would best evaluate a drug with a narrow therapeutic index?
A) Complete blood count
B) Serum drug concentration
C) Urinalysis
D) Liver function test
Answer: B) Serum drug concentration
Rationale: Measuring serum levels helps monitor effectiveness and toxicity in narrow therapeutic
index drugs.
15. What is the clinical significance of protein-binding in pharmacology?
A) It allows drugs to be stored in fatty tissues
B) Only unbound (free) drug is pharmacologically active
C) Protein-binding reduces drug metabolism
D) Only bound drug is excreted by the kidneys
Answer: B) Only unbound (free) drug is pharmacologically active
Rationale: Drugs bound to plasma proteins are inactive; only free drugs cross membranes and
activate receptors.
16. A drug that increases the activity of liver enzymes and thereby decreases the effects of other
drugs is called a(n):
A) Enzyme inhibitor
B) Enzyme inducer
C) Competitive antagonist
D) Prodrug
Answer: B) Enzyme inducer
Rationale: Enzyme inducers enhance metabolism of drugs, potentially reducing plasma levels.
17. A prodrug is:
A) A drug given in inactive form that requires metabolism to activate
B) A drug with prolonged action
C) An antagonist drug
D) A drug given intravenously
Answer: A) A drug given in inactive form that requires metabolism to activate
Rationale: Prodrugs depend on metabolism to convert to their active form.
18. Which phase of drug development focuses on post-marketing surveillance?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
Introduction to Pharmacology
Objective Assessments
2025 Versions
(With Solutions)
1. Which phase of drug action involves the process by which a drug is absorbed, distributed,
metabolized, and excreted by the body?
A) Pharmacodynamics
B) Pharmacokinetics
C) Pharmacogenetics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Answer: B) Pharmacokinetics
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes how the body handles a drug through absorption,
distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
2. Which route of drug administration typically has the fastest onset of action?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Intravenous
D) Subcutaneous
Answer: C) Intravenous
Rationale: Intravenous administration delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, providing
the fastest onset.
3. What is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism?
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Lung
D) Stomach
Answer: B) Liver
Rationale: The liver is the main site of enzyme activity that metabolizes drugs into more water-
soluble compounds for excretion.
4. Which term describes the ability of a drug to produce a maximum therapeutic effect regardless
of dose?
A) Potency
B) Efficacy
,C) Bioavailability
D) Toxicity
Answer: B) Efficacy
Rationale: Efficacy refers to the drug’s maximum effect when bound to receptors.
5. The process by which a drug crosses biological membranes to reach its site of action is called:
A) Biotransformation
B) Absorption
C) Distribution
D) Excretion
Answer: B) Absorption
Rationale: Absorption describes the movement of a drug from the site of administration into the
bloodstream.
6. Which of the following drug receptors is most commonly involved in the effect of most drugs?
A) Enzyme-linked receptors
B) Ligand-gated ion channels
C) G protein-coupled receptors
D) Intracellular receptors
Answer: C) G protein-coupled receptors
Rationale: G protein-coupled receptors represent the largest family of receptors that many drugs
target.
7. A nurse knows that "half-life" of a drug is:
A) The time for the drug to reach the maximum concentration in plasma
B) The time for the drug to be completely eliminated
C) The time for the plasma concentration of a drug to reduce by half
D) The duration of the drug’s therapeutic effect
Answer: C) The time for the plasma concentration of a drug to reduce by half
Rationale: Half-life determines dosing intervals and steady-state drug levels.
8. What is the bioavailability of a drug?
A) The amount of drug administered
B) The fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic circulation in active form
C) The speed at which a drug is absorbed
D) The rate of drug metabolism
Answer: B) The fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic circulation in active form
Rationale: Bioavailability indicates the extent of absorption and first-pass metabolism.
,9. Which phase of clinical trials assesses safety, dosage ranges, and side effects?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
Answer: A) Phase I
Rationale: Phase I trials are conducted on healthy volunteers primarily to evaluate safety.
10. How does the "first-pass effect" influence orally administered drugs?
A) It improves drug efficacy by increasing absorption
B) It reduces drug bioavailability by metabolism in the liver before reaching systemic circulation
C) It causes drug elimination through kidneys
D) It makes the drug more potent
Answer: B) It reduces drug bioavailability by metabolism in the liver before reaching systemic
circulation
Rationale: The first-pass effect is the liver’s metabolism of a drug before it enters systemic
circulation.
11. Which nursing action best prevents medication errors?
A) Administering all drugs quickly
B) Using the "five rights" of medication administration
C) Avoiding documentation
D) Skipping double checks for routine medications
Answer: B) Using the "five rights" of medication administration
Rationale: The five rights (right patient, drug, dose, time, route) help prevent errors.
12. Which category of drugs acts by blocking receptor activity?
A) Agonists
B) Antagonists
C) Partial agonists
D) Enzyme inducers
Answer: B) Antagonists
Rationale: Antagonists bind to receptors without activating them, blocking the effects of agonists.
13. When a nurse observes signs of an allergic reaction after drug administration, what is the likely
mechanism?
A) Side effect
B) Tolerance
C) Hypersensitivity
D) Toxicity
, Answer: C) Hypersensitivity
Rationale: Allergic reactions are immune-mediated hypersensitivity responses to drugs.
14. Which laboratory test would best evaluate a drug with a narrow therapeutic index?
A) Complete blood count
B) Serum drug concentration
C) Urinalysis
D) Liver function test
Answer: B) Serum drug concentration
Rationale: Measuring serum levels helps monitor effectiveness and toxicity in narrow therapeutic
index drugs.
15. What is the clinical significance of protein-binding in pharmacology?
A) It allows drugs to be stored in fatty tissues
B) Only unbound (free) drug is pharmacologically active
C) Protein-binding reduces drug metabolism
D) Only bound drug is excreted by the kidneys
Answer: B) Only unbound (free) drug is pharmacologically active
Rationale: Drugs bound to plasma proteins are inactive; only free drugs cross membranes and
activate receptors.
16. A drug that increases the activity of liver enzymes and thereby decreases the effects of other
drugs is called a(n):
A) Enzyme inhibitor
B) Enzyme inducer
C) Competitive antagonist
D) Prodrug
Answer: B) Enzyme inducer
Rationale: Enzyme inducers enhance metabolism of drugs, potentially reducing plasma levels.
17. A prodrug is:
A) A drug given in inactive form that requires metabolism to activate
B) A drug with prolonged action
C) An antagonist drug
D) A drug given intravenously
Answer: A) A drug given in inactive form that requires metabolism to activate
Rationale: Prodrugs depend on metabolism to convert to their active form.
18. Which phase of drug development focuses on post-marketing surveillance?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
