NUR 283 COMPREHENSIVE EXAM 1 –
CONCEPT REVIEW & PRACTICE Q&A
✅✅ Galen College of Nursing | Latest
Edition 2026
Section 1: Foundational Nursing Concepts & Safety
1. Q: What is the primary purpose of the Nursing Process?
A: To provide a systematic, patient-centered framework for care: Assessment, Diagnosis,
Planning, Implementation, Evaluation.
2. Q: Define Clinical Judgment in nursing practice.
A: The observed outcome of critical thinking and decision-making, integrating evidence
to provide safe patient care.
3. Q: What are the 5 Rights of Delegation?
A: Right Task, Right Circumstance, Right Person, Right Direction/Communication, Right
Supervision/Evaluation.
4. Q: Which nursing action best demonstrates patient advocacy?
A: Ensuring the patient’s preferences and needs are respected and communicated within
the healthcare team.
5. Q: What is the first priority in any emergency situation?
A: Ensure safety of the nurse, patient, and environment (check for immediate danger).
6. Q: How does a nurse practice cultural competence?
A: By respecting and integrating a patient’s cultural beliefs, values, and practices into
their care plan.
, 7. Q: What is informed consent and who is responsible for obtaining it?
A: The patient’s voluntary agreement to a procedure after understanding risks/benefits;
the provider explains, the nurse witnesses.
8. Q: Which action best prevents needlestick injuries?
A: Never recapping used needles; use safety-engineered devices and sharps containers.
9. Q: What does SBAR stand for and when is it used?
A: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation; used for structured
communication during handoff or provider calls.
10. Q: Define primary prevention. Give an example.
A: Preventing disease before it occurs (e.g., immunizations, health education).
Section 2: Infection Control & Hygiene
11. Q: What are the four moments of hand hygiene per WHO?
A: 1) Before touching patient, 2) Before clean/aseptic procedure, 3) After body fluid
exposure risk, 4) After touching patient/environment.
12. Q: Which PPE is required for contact precautions?
A: Gloves and gown upon room entry.
13. Q: For airborne precautions, what type of room and PPE are needed?
A: Negative pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR); N95 respirator or higher.
14. Q: What is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)?
A: Consistent, proper hand hygiene.
15. Q: When should an alcohol-based hand rub NOT be used?
A: When hands are visibly soiled, after caring for a patient with C. diff, or before eating.
16. Q: How does a nurse properly remove PPE to avoid self-contamination?
A: Gloves → goggles/face shield → gown → mask/respirator; perform hand hygiene
immediately after.
17. Q: Which patients are at highest risk for opportunistic infections?
A: Immunosuppressed patients (e.g., chemotherapy, HIV, chronic steroid use).
, 18. Q: What is medical asepsis vs. surgical asepsis?
A: Medical asepsis reduces pathogens (clean technique); surgical asepsis eliminates all
microorganisms (sterile technique).
19. Q: Why is oral care important for critically ill patients?
A: To prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) and promote comfort.
20. Q: How often should a bedridden patient be repositioned to prevent pressure injuries?
A: At least every 2 hours, using a turn schedule.
Section 3: Vital Signs & Assessment
21. Q: What is the normal adult range for oral temperature?
A: 97.8°F – 99.1°F (36.5°C – 37.3°C).
22. Q: How long should a nurse wait to take an oral temperature if the patient drank hot
coffee?
A: 15–30 minutes.
23. Q: Define pulse deficit and how it is assessed.
A: Difference between apical and radial pulse rates; assessed by two nurses
simultaneously for one minute.
24. Q: Where is the apical pulse located and when is it indicated?
A: 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line; indicated for irregular heart rhythms, before
giving cardiac medications.
25. Q: What is orthostatic (postural) hypotension and how is it assessed?
A: A drop in systolic ≥20 mmHg or diastolic ≥10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing;
assess lying, sitting, standing BP/pulse.
26. Q: Which respiratory pattern indicates potential neurological compromise?
A: Cheyne-Stokes respirations (gradual increase then decrease in depth, with apnea).
27. Q: What is pulse oximetry and what factors can affect accuracy?
A: Measures arterial oxygen saturation (SpO₂); affected by poor perfusion, nail polish,
motion, carbon monoxide poisoning.
, 28. Q: How is pain considered in nursing assessment?
A: Pain is the 5th vital sign; assess using an appropriate scale (numeric, FACES, FLACC).
29. Q: What is the normal range for oxygen saturation (SpO₂) in a healthy adult?
A: 95–100%.
30. Q: When should a nurse manually verify an automatic BP reading?
A: If the reading is unexpectedly high/low, or if the patient has arrhythmias.
Section 4: Medication Administration & Math
31. Q: What are the 10 Rights of Medication Administration?
A: Right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation, patient education, assessment,
evaluation, refusal.
32. Q: What is the most reliable identifier for a patient before medication administration?
A: Two identifiers: name and date of birth (check armband and ask patient).
33. Q: A patient’s medication order is written for 500 mg PO. Available tablets are 250 mg
each. How many tablets will you give?
A: 2 tablets.
34. Q: The provider orders 0.25 mg of digoxin. The vial is labeled 0.5 mg/2 mL. How many
mL will you administer?
A: 1 mL.
35. Q: What is Z-track technique and for which medications is it used?
A: A method for IM injections to prevent leakage into subcutaneous tissue; used for
irritating medications (e.g., iron dextran).
36. Q: Which injection site is preferred for IM administration of vaccines in adults?
A: Deltoid muscle.
37. Q: What is the angle of insertion for subcutaneous injections?
A: 45 to 90 degrees, depending on needle length and patient’s body fat.
38. Q: Before giving IV potassium, what must a nurse ensure?
A: That it is adequately diluted and infused slowly via pump; never IV push (causes
cardiac arrest).
CONCEPT REVIEW & PRACTICE Q&A
✅✅ Galen College of Nursing | Latest
Edition 2026
Section 1: Foundational Nursing Concepts & Safety
1. Q: What is the primary purpose of the Nursing Process?
A: To provide a systematic, patient-centered framework for care: Assessment, Diagnosis,
Planning, Implementation, Evaluation.
2. Q: Define Clinical Judgment in nursing practice.
A: The observed outcome of critical thinking and decision-making, integrating evidence
to provide safe patient care.
3. Q: What are the 5 Rights of Delegation?
A: Right Task, Right Circumstance, Right Person, Right Direction/Communication, Right
Supervision/Evaluation.
4. Q: Which nursing action best demonstrates patient advocacy?
A: Ensuring the patient’s preferences and needs are respected and communicated within
the healthcare team.
5. Q: What is the first priority in any emergency situation?
A: Ensure safety of the nurse, patient, and environment (check for immediate danger).
6. Q: How does a nurse practice cultural competence?
A: By respecting and integrating a patient’s cultural beliefs, values, and practices into
their care plan.
, 7. Q: What is informed consent and who is responsible for obtaining it?
A: The patient’s voluntary agreement to a procedure after understanding risks/benefits;
the provider explains, the nurse witnesses.
8. Q: Which action best prevents needlestick injuries?
A: Never recapping used needles; use safety-engineered devices and sharps containers.
9. Q: What does SBAR stand for and when is it used?
A: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation; used for structured
communication during handoff or provider calls.
10. Q: Define primary prevention. Give an example.
A: Preventing disease before it occurs (e.g., immunizations, health education).
Section 2: Infection Control & Hygiene
11. Q: What are the four moments of hand hygiene per WHO?
A: 1) Before touching patient, 2) Before clean/aseptic procedure, 3) After body fluid
exposure risk, 4) After touching patient/environment.
12. Q: Which PPE is required for contact precautions?
A: Gloves and gown upon room entry.
13. Q: For airborne precautions, what type of room and PPE are needed?
A: Negative pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR); N95 respirator or higher.
14. Q: What is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)?
A: Consistent, proper hand hygiene.
15. Q: When should an alcohol-based hand rub NOT be used?
A: When hands are visibly soiled, after caring for a patient with C. diff, or before eating.
16. Q: How does a nurse properly remove PPE to avoid self-contamination?
A: Gloves → goggles/face shield → gown → mask/respirator; perform hand hygiene
immediately after.
17. Q: Which patients are at highest risk for opportunistic infections?
A: Immunosuppressed patients (e.g., chemotherapy, HIV, chronic steroid use).
, 18. Q: What is medical asepsis vs. surgical asepsis?
A: Medical asepsis reduces pathogens (clean technique); surgical asepsis eliminates all
microorganisms (sterile technique).
19. Q: Why is oral care important for critically ill patients?
A: To prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) and promote comfort.
20. Q: How often should a bedridden patient be repositioned to prevent pressure injuries?
A: At least every 2 hours, using a turn schedule.
Section 3: Vital Signs & Assessment
21. Q: What is the normal adult range for oral temperature?
A: 97.8°F – 99.1°F (36.5°C – 37.3°C).
22. Q: How long should a nurse wait to take an oral temperature if the patient drank hot
coffee?
A: 15–30 minutes.
23. Q: Define pulse deficit and how it is assessed.
A: Difference between apical and radial pulse rates; assessed by two nurses
simultaneously for one minute.
24. Q: Where is the apical pulse located and when is it indicated?
A: 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line; indicated for irregular heart rhythms, before
giving cardiac medications.
25. Q: What is orthostatic (postural) hypotension and how is it assessed?
A: A drop in systolic ≥20 mmHg or diastolic ≥10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing;
assess lying, sitting, standing BP/pulse.
26. Q: Which respiratory pattern indicates potential neurological compromise?
A: Cheyne-Stokes respirations (gradual increase then decrease in depth, with apnea).
27. Q: What is pulse oximetry and what factors can affect accuracy?
A: Measures arterial oxygen saturation (SpO₂); affected by poor perfusion, nail polish,
motion, carbon monoxide poisoning.
, 28. Q: How is pain considered in nursing assessment?
A: Pain is the 5th vital sign; assess using an appropriate scale (numeric, FACES, FLACC).
29. Q: What is the normal range for oxygen saturation (SpO₂) in a healthy adult?
A: 95–100%.
30. Q: When should a nurse manually verify an automatic BP reading?
A: If the reading is unexpectedly high/low, or if the patient has arrhythmias.
Section 4: Medication Administration & Math
31. Q: What are the 10 Rights of Medication Administration?
A: Right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation, patient education, assessment,
evaluation, refusal.
32. Q: What is the most reliable identifier for a patient before medication administration?
A: Two identifiers: name and date of birth (check armband and ask patient).
33. Q: A patient’s medication order is written for 500 mg PO. Available tablets are 250 mg
each. How many tablets will you give?
A: 2 tablets.
34. Q: The provider orders 0.25 mg of digoxin. The vial is labeled 0.5 mg/2 mL. How many
mL will you administer?
A: 1 mL.
35. Q: What is Z-track technique and for which medications is it used?
A: A method for IM injections to prevent leakage into subcutaneous tissue; used for
irritating medications (e.g., iron dextran).
36. Q: Which injection site is preferred for IM administration of vaccines in adults?
A: Deltoid muscle.
37. Q: What is the angle of insertion for subcutaneous injections?
A: 45 to 90 degrees, depending on needle length and patient’s body fat.
38. Q: Before giving IV potassium, what must a nurse ensure?
A: That it is adequately diluted and infused slowly via pump; never IV push (causes
cardiac arrest).
