CHILD NURSING CARE
3RD EDITION
• AUTHOR(S)MEREDITH SCANNELL
TEST BANK
1.
Reference: Ch. 1 — Core Concepts — Nursing Roles & Standards
of Practice
Stem: A postpartum nurse is delegating care on a busy unit. A
newly hired LPN asks which tasks they may perform for a stable
postpartum client. The RN must prioritize delegation while
remaining accountable and ensuring standards of practice are
met. Which action should the RN take first?
A. Delegate routine vital signs and perineal care to the LPN and
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,document delegation.
B. Assign the LPN to administer the first dose of the prescribed
opioid analgesic.
C. Ask the LPN to complete the initial postpartum assessment
independently.
D. Have the LPN educate the client about breastfeeding latch
techniques.
Correct answer: A
Rationale — Correct (3–4 sentences): Delegating routine vital
signs and perineal care to an LPN for a stable postpartum client
is appropriate and within typical LPN scope when supervised by
the RN. The RN remains responsible for overall care and
documentation of delegation, which maintains standards of
practice and accountability. This prioritizes safety while using
team skills efficiently.
Rationale — Incorrect B (1–3 sentences): Administering the
first dose of an opioid often requires RN assessment and
verification of orders; delegating it to an LPN may be outside
scope and unsafe.
pg. 2
,Rationale — Incorrect C: The initial postpartum assessment is a
comprehensive RN responsibility; delegating it would miss
critical clinical judgment.
Rationale — Incorrect D: Breastfeeding latch education requires
teaching skills and assessment by the RN or lactation
consultant; delegating without supervision risks ineffective
instruction.
Teaching point: RN must supervise delegation, document it,
and keep initial assessments and high-risk tasks.
Citation: Scannell, M. (2025). Davis Advantage for Maternal-
Child Nursing Care (3rd ed.). Ch. 1.
2.
Reference: Ch. 1 — Nursing Process — Assessment &
Prioritization
Stem: During a triage phone call, a pregnant client at 36 weeks
reports decreased fetal movements for the past 12 hours and
mild lower abdominal cramping. She has no bleeding or fluid
leakage. What should the nurse advise first?
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, A. Instruct the client to come to the facility immediately for
fetal assessment and NST.
B. Teach the client to rest and count fetal movements at home
for the next 24 hours.
C. Reassure the client that mild cramping is normal and to call if
it worsens.
D. Recommend increasing oral fluids and perform kick counts at
home tonight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale — Correct: Decreased fetal movement at 36 weeks is
a red flag for fetal compromise; immediate in-person fetal
assessment (NST/BPP) is indicated to evaluate fetal well-being.
Early assessment prioritizes safety and timely intervention.
Telephone advice that delays evaluation could risk adverse
outcomes.
Rationale — Incorrect B: Waiting 24 hours could delay
necessary care if fetal distress is present.
Rationale — Incorrect C: Reassurance alone ignores potential
fetal risk; this is unsafe.
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