SERVSAFE MANAGER FINAL EXAM (2025/2026)
Actual Exam with Complete Questions | National Restaurant Association | Food Safety
Management Certification
Overview
This 2025/2026 validated resource contains the complete ServSafe Manager Final Exam
with actual questions and verified answers, directly aligned with current National Restaurant
Association certification standards. Essential for food service managers and professionals
preparing for certification and demonstrating comprehensive knowledge of food safety
principles and management practices.
Key Features
✓ 90-Question Comprehensive Exam matching ServSafe testing format
✓ Food Safety Management Principles with practical applications
✓ Regulatory Compliance Requirements with inspection protocols
✓ Updated 2025/2026 FDA Food Code standards
✓ Risk Prevention & Crisis Management with HACCP applications
Content Domains
• Foodborne Illness & Contamination (20 Questions)
• Personal Hygiene & Employee Health (18 Questions)
• Safe Food Preparation & Handling (17 Questions)
• Cleaning & Sanitizing Procedures (15 Questions)
• Facility Design & Pest Management (12 Questions)
• Management & Regulatory Compliance (8 Questions)
Answer Format
Verified correct answers in bold green with:
• Food safety principle applications
• Regulatory requirement justifications
• Risk prevention rationales
• Management protocol evaluations
Critical Updates 2025/2026
NEW - Allergen control enhancement protocols
UPDATED - Temperature control requirements
REVISED - Employee health policy standards
MODIFIED - Sanitation verification procedures
FOODBORNE ILLNESS & CONTAMINATION (Questions 1–20)
1. The "Big 6" foodborne pathogens include?
a) E. coli, Salmonella, Listeria, Norovirus, Hepatitis A, Shigella
b) Norovirus, Salmonella Typhi, Hepatitis A, Shigella, E. coli O157:H7,
Listeria
, c) Campylobacter, Staph aureus, Bacillus, Vibrio, Clostridium, Yersinia
d) Rotavirus, Adenovirus, Astrovirus, Sapovirus, Coronavirus, Influenza
Rationale: Big 6 are highly infectious via low dose and excluded from work (2025
FDA).
2. Norovirus transmission occurs primarily via?
a) Airborne particles
b) Fecal-oral route and contaminated surfaces
c) Vector-borne
d) Skin contact only
Rationale: Extremely contagious; surfaces and hands are major vectors.
3. Minimum internal temperature for poultry (whole)?
a) 145°F (63°C)
b) 165°F (74°C)
c) 155°F (68°C)
d) 135°F (57°C)
Rationale: 165°F kills Salmonella and Campylobacter in poultry.
4. Temperature danger zone is?
a) 32°F – 70°F
b) 41°F – 135°F (5°C – 57°C)
c) 50°F – 150°F
d) 70°F – 120°F
Rationale: Pathogens multiply rapidly between 41°F and 135°F.
5. Which pathogen grows at refrigerator temps?
a) Salmonella
b) Listeria monocytogenes
c) Norovirus
d) Hepatitis A
Rationale: Listeria psychrotrophic; grows slowly at 34–40°F.
6. Staphylococcus aureus toxin is?
a) Heat-labile
b) Heat-stable; not destroyed by cooking
c) pH-sensitive
d) Oxygen-labile
Rationale: Enterotoxin survives boiling; prevention focuses on preventing growth.
7. Clostridium botulinum spores are destroyed by?
a) Pasteurisation
b) Commercial sterilisation (250°F/15 psi/15 min)
c) Refrigeration
d) Drying
Rationale: Spores require high temperature/pressure for destruction.
8. Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for?
a) General public only
b) Food handlers in high-risk areas and during outbreaks
c) No one
d) Only elderly
Rationale: Post-exposure prophylaxis and vaccination prevent foodborne
transmission.
Actual Exam with Complete Questions | National Restaurant Association | Food Safety
Management Certification
Overview
This 2025/2026 validated resource contains the complete ServSafe Manager Final Exam
with actual questions and verified answers, directly aligned with current National Restaurant
Association certification standards. Essential for food service managers and professionals
preparing for certification and demonstrating comprehensive knowledge of food safety
principles and management practices.
Key Features
✓ 90-Question Comprehensive Exam matching ServSafe testing format
✓ Food Safety Management Principles with practical applications
✓ Regulatory Compliance Requirements with inspection protocols
✓ Updated 2025/2026 FDA Food Code standards
✓ Risk Prevention & Crisis Management with HACCP applications
Content Domains
• Foodborne Illness & Contamination (20 Questions)
• Personal Hygiene & Employee Health (18 Questions)
• Safe Food Preparation & Handling (17 Questions)
• Cleaning & Sanitizing Procedures (15 Questions)
• Facility Design & Pest Management (12 Questions)
• Management & Regulatory Compliance (8 Questions)
Answer Format
Verified correct answers in bold green with:
• Food safety principle applications
• Regulatory requirement justifications
• Risk prevention rationales
• Management protocol evaluations
Critical Updates 2025/2026
NEW - Allergen control enhancement protocols
UPDATED - Temperature control requirements
REVISED - Employee health policy standards
MODIFIED - Sanitation verification procedures
FOODBORNE ILLNESS & CONTAMINATION (Questions 1–20)
1. The "Big 6" foodborne pathogens include?
a) E. coli, Salmonella, Listeria, Norovirus, Hepatitis A, Shigella
b) Norovirus, Salmonella Typhi, Hepatitis A, Shigella, E. coli O157:H7,
Listeria
, c) Campylobacter, Staph aureus, Bacillus, Vibrio, Clostridium, Yersinia
d) Rotavirus, Adenovirus, Astrovirus, Sapovirus, Coronavirus, Influenza
Rationale: Big 6 are highly infectious via low dose and excluded from work (2025
FDA).
2. Norovirus transmission occurs primarily via?
a) Airborne particles
b) Fecal-oral route and contaminated surfaces
c) Vector-borne
d) Skin contact only
Rationale: Extremely contagious; surfaces and hands are major vectors.
3. Minimum internal temperature for poultry (whole)?
a) 145°F (63°C)
b) 165°F (74°C)
c) 155°F (68°C)
d) 135°F (57°C)
Rationale: 165°F kills Salmonella and Campylobacter in poultry.
4. Temperature danger zone is?
a) 32°F – 70°F
b) 41°F – 135°F (5°C – 57°C)
c) 50°F – 150°F
d) 70°F – 120°F
Rationale: Pathogens multiply rapidly between 41°F and 135°F.
5. Which pathogen grows at refrigerator temps?
a) Salmonella
b) Listeria monocytogenes
c) Norovirus
d) Hepatitis A
Rationale: Listeria psychrotrophic; grows slowly at 34–40°F.
6. Staphylococcus aureus toxin is?
a) Heat-labile
b) Heat-stable; not destroyed by cooking
c) pH-sensitive
d) Oxygen-labile
Rationale: Enterotoxin survives boiling; prevention focuses on preventing growth.
7. Clostridium botulinum spores are destroyed by?
a) Pasteurisation
b) Commercial sterilisation (250°F/15 psi/15 min)
c) Refrigeration
d) Drying
Rationale: Spores require high temperature/pressure for destruction.
8. Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for?
a) General public only
b) Food handlers in high-risk areas and during outbreaks
c) No one
d) Only elderly
Rationale: Post-exposure prophylaxis and vaccination prevent foodborne
transmission.
